A nurse is mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe prior to administering it to a client who has diabetes mellitus.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Inject air into the NPH vial.
Withdraw the NPH insulin from the vial.
Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial.
Inject air into the regular insulin vial.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct sequence for mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe is important to ensure proper dosing. The nurse should follow these steps:
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Inject air into the NPH (intermediate-acting) insulin vial: Injecting air into the NPH vial first helps to equalize the pressure in the vial, making it easier to withdraw the insulin later. This step is done first to avoid contaminating the regular insulin vial with NPH insulin.
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Inject air into the regular insulin vial: Next, inject an amount of air equal to the intended regular insulin dose into the regular insulin vial.This also helps to equalize the pressure and makes it easier to withdraw the insulin.
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Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial : The nurse should withdraw the regular insulin first because it is clear and not contaminated. This prevents any NPH insulin from mixing into the regular insulin vial.
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Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial: Finally, the nurse withdraws the NPH insulin. Since the regular insulin has already been drawn up, there is no risk of contaminating the regular insulin with NPH insulin.
This sequence ensures that you don't contaminate the vials, and you accurately withdraw the appropriate doses of each insulin type.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Distended neck veins are a sign of increased central venous pressure, which can result from fluid volume excess. Fluid volume excess can also cause edema, crackles in the lungs, and increased blood pressure.
Choice A is wrong because decreased bowel sounds are not related to fluid volume excess.
Decreased bowel sounds can indicate ileus, obstruction, or peritonitis. Choice B is wrong because bilateral muscle weakness is not a sign of fluid volume excess.
Bilateral muscle weakness can be caused by electrolyte imbalances, neuromuscular disorders, or stroke.
Choice C is wrong because thready pulse is a sign of fluid volume deficit, not excess.
Thready pulse indicates poor perfusion and low cardiac output, which can result from dehydration, hemorrhage, or shock.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because TPN solutions are concentrated and can cause thrombosis of peripheral veins, so a central venous catheter is usually required. TPN should only be used when the intestine is unavailable or unable to absorb nutrients.
Choice A is wrong because a midline catheter is a type of peripheral catheter that can only be used for solutions with low or moderate osmolarity, not for TPN.
Choice C is wrong because subcutaneous administration is not a route for delivering TPN, which requires intravenous infusion.
Choice D is wrong because intraosseous administration is an emergency route for delivering fluids and drugs when intravenous access is not available, not for TPN.
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