A nurse is mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe prior to administering it to a client who has diabetes mellitus.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Inject air into the NPH vial.
Withdraw the NPH insulin from the vial.
Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial.
Inject air into the regular insulin vial.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct sequence for mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe is important to ensure proper dosing. The nurse should follow these steps:
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Inject air into the NPH (intermediate-acting) insulin vial: Injecting air into the NPH vial first helps to equalize the pressure in the vial, making it easier to withdraw the insulin later. This step is done first to avoid contaminating the regular insulin vial with NPH insulin.
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Inject air into the regular insulin vial: Next, inject an amount of air equal to the intended regular insulin dose into the regular insulin vial.This also helps to equalize the pressure and makes it easier to withdraw the insulin.
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Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial : The nurse should withdraw the regular insulin first because it is clear and not contaminated. This prevents any NPH insulin from mixing into the regular insulin vial.
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Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial: Finally, the nurse withdraws the NPH insulin. Since the regular insulin has already been drawn up, there is no risk of contaminating the regular insulin with NPH insulin.
This sequence ensures that you don't contaminate the vials, and you accurately withdraw the appropriate doses of each insulin type.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Calcium gluconate is used to treat hypermagnesemia because it can help calm some symptoms such as impaired breathing, irregular heartbeat, and hypotension. Calcium also helps normalize the neuromuscular function that is affected by excess magnesium.
Choice B. Acetylcysteine is wrong because it is used to treat acetaminophen overdose and prevent kidney damage from contrast dye.
It has no role in treating hypermagnesemia.
Choice C. Flumazenil is wrong because it is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, a class of sedative drugs.
It has no role in treating hypermagnesemia.
Choice D. Protamine sulfate is wrong because it is used to reverse the effects of heparin, an anticoagulant drug.
It has no role in treating hypermagnesemia.
Normal ranges for magnesium are 1.7 to 2.3 mg/dL or 0.7 to 1.1 mmol/L. Hypermagnesemia is defined as a magnesium level above 2.6 mg/dL or 1.5 mmol/L.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Raloxifene is a medication used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
Osteoporosis is a condition that causes bones to become thin and weak, increasing the risk of fractures.
Raloxifene belongs to a class of drugs called selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs), which mimic the effects of estrogen on bone density. Choice B is wrong because raloxifene may increase the risk of deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), a type of blood clot that forms in a vein deep in the body. DVT can cause pain, swelling, and redness in the affected limb, and can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE), a blood clot in the lung.
Raloxifene should not be used by people who have or had DVT or PE. Choice C is wrong because raloxifene is not used to treat urinary tract infection (UTI), an infection that affects the bladder, kidneys, or ureters. UTI can cause symptoms such as burning or pain when urinating, frequent or urgent urination, blood in the urine, or fever.
UTI is usually treated with antibiotics.
Choice D is wrong because raloxifene is not used to treat hypothyroidism, a condition that occurs when the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone.
Thyroid hormone regulates the body’s metabolism, growth, and development. Hypothyroidism can cause symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, dry skin, hair loss, or depression.
Hypothyroidism is usually treated with synthetic thyroid hormone replacement.
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