A nurse is assessing a client’s IV infusion site and notes that the site is cool and edematous.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Initiate a new IV distal to the initial site.
Slow the IV solution rate.
Maintain the extremity below the level of the heart.
Apply a warm, moist compress.
The Correct Answer is D
The most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is:
d. Apply a warm, moist compress.
Here's why the other options are not recommended:
- a. Initiate a new IV distal to the initial site: This is not the first course of action. While starting a new IV might be necessary eventually, it's crucial to address the issue at the current site first.
- b. Slow the IV solution rate: Slowing the rate doesn't directly address the coolness and edema, which indicate potential infiltration or extravasation.
- c. Maintain the extremity below the level of the heart: This action would actually worsen the edema by promoting fluid accumulation at the site.
Applying a warm, moist compress can help promote absorption of any leaked fluid and improve circulation at the site. However, it's important to remember that this is just one step in the process. The nurse should also:
- Stop the IV infusion.
- Assess the extent of the infiltration or extravasation.
- Document the findings.
- Elevate the affected extremity.
- Consult with a physician for further instructions and potential treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Albumin is a protein that helps maintain fluid balance in the body by drawing water into the blood vessels. Albumin infusion can increase the blood volume and blood pressure in patients who are in shock due to fluid loss or sepsis.
Choice A is wrong because albumin infusion does not decrease protein levels in the body.
Albumin is a protein itself and adding it to the blood increases the protein concentration.
Choice C is wrong because oxygen saturation of 96% is normal and does not indicate any improvement or deterioration in the patient’s condition.
Choice D is wrong because PaCO2 of 30 mm Hg is low and indicates respiratory alkalosis, which can be caused by hyperventilation, fever, or anxiety. Albumin infusion does not affect PaCO2 levels directly.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because fever is a common sign of an acute infusion reaction that can occur when receiving IV amphotericin B. An acute infusion reaction is caused by the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines from the fungal cell wall disruption by amphotericin B. It usually occurs within the first hour of infusion and can be prevented by administering pre-medications such as antipyretics, antihistamines, or corticosteroids.
Choice A. Pedal edema is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Pedal edema may indicate fluid overload, heart failure, or renal impairment, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
Choice C. Dry cough is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Dry cough may indicate an allergic reaction, pulmonary infection, or interstitial lung disease, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion. Choice D. Hyperglycemia is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Hyperglycemia may indicate diabetes mellitus, steroid use, or stress response, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
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