A nurse is assessing a client’s IV infusion site and notes that the site is cool and edematous.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Initiate a new IV distal to the initial site.
Slow the IV solution rate.
Maintain the extremity below the level of the heart.
Apply a warm, moist compress.
The Correct Answer is D
The most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is:
d. Apply a warm, moist compress.
Here's why the other options are not recommended:
- a. Initiate a new IV distal to the initial site: This is not the first course of action. While starting a new IV might be necessary eventually, it's crucial to address the issue at the current site first.
- b. Slow the IV solution rate: Slowing the rate doesn't directly address the coolness and edema, which indicate potential infiltration or extravasation.
- c. Maintain the extremity below the level of the heart: This action would actually worsen the edema by promoting fluid accumulation at the site.
Applying a warm, moist compress can help promote absorption of any leaked fluid and improve circulation at the site. However, it's important to remember that this is just one step in the process. The nurse should also:
- Stop the IV infusion.
- Assess the extent of the infiltration or extravasation.
- Document the findings.
- Elevate the affected extremity.
- Consult with a physician for further instructions and potential treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because a weight gain of 2.5 kg (5 Ib) in 2 days indicates a worsening of heart failure and fluid retention, which may require an adjustment of the diuretic dose or other medications.
The provider should be informed of this change as soon as possible to prevent further complications.
Choice A is wrong because teaching the client about foods low in sodium is not the first action the nurse should take.
While a low-sodium diet is important for heart failure patients, it is not an urgent intervention and it does not address the immediate problem of fluid overload.
Choice B is wrong because determining medication adherence by the client is not the first action the nurse should take.
While it is important to assess if the client is taking furosemide as prescribed, it is not an urgent intervention and it does not rule out other causes of fluid retention, such as renal impairment or disease progression.
Choice C is wrong because encouraging the client to dangle the legs while sitting in a chair is not the first action the nurse should take.
While this may help reduce edema in the lower extremities, it does not address the underlying cause of fluid overload and it may worsen pulmonary congestion by increasing venous return to the heart.
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
Fluticasone is an inhaled steroid that prevents the symptoms of asthma by decreasing inflammation in the airways. It is not used to treat a sudden asthma attack.
Some additional information to explain why the other choices are wrong are:
Choice C is wrong because soaking the inhaler in water after use can damage the device and affect its performance.
Choice D is wrong because fluticasone is not a rescue inhaler that can be used as needed for shortness of breath.It is a controller inhaler that should be used regularly as prescribed by the doctor.
Choice E is wrong because shaking the device prior to administration is not necessary for a fluticasone metered-dose inhaler (MDI).However, it is recommended for fluticasone inhalation powder (Flovent Diskus). Some normal ranges that may be applicable are:
The usual dose of fluticasone MDI for adults and children 12 years and older is 55 to 232 mcg twice a day.The usual dose of fluticasone MDI for children 4 to 11 years old is 30 mcg twice a day. The maximum dose of fluticasone MDI for adults and children 12 years and older is 1000 mcg twice a day.
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