A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving morphine via continuous epidural infusion.
The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Gastric bleeding.

Pruritus.

Cough.

Tachypnea.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Pruritus is a common adverse effect of morphine administered via continuous epidural infusion. It is caused by the release of histamine from mast cells in the skin. Pruritus can be treated with antihistamines or opioid antagonists. Choice A is wrong because gastric bleeding is not a common adverse effect of morphine administered via continuous epidural infusion.

Gastric bleeding can occur due to peptic ulcer disease, nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), or anticoagulants.

Choice C is wrong because cough is not a common adverse effect of morphine administered via continuous epidural infusion.

Cough can be caused by respiratory infections, asthma, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

Choice D is wrong because tachypnea is not a common adverse effect of morphine administered via continuous epidural infusion.

Tachypnea can be caused by hypoxia, anxiety, pain, or fever. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, which is characterized by bradypnea, not tachypnea.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Naloxone is a drug that reverses the effects of opioids, such as morphine, by blocking their receptors in the brain. One of the adverse effects of morphine is respiratory depression, which means it slows down breathing and can lead to hypoxia (low oxygen levels) or death. Naloxone can restore normal breathing and prevent further harm from opioid overdose. Therefore, an increased respiratory rate is a therapeutic effect of naloxone.

Choice A is wrong because decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.

In fact, naloxone can cause hypertension (high blood pressure) as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.

Choice B is wrong because decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone. Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, but naloxone does not affect it directly.

Naloxone can actually cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.

Choice D is wrong because increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.

Pain relief is a desired effect of morphine, but naloxone antagonizes it by blocking the opioid receptors.

Naloxone can cause pain and discomfort as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.

A. Increased pulse rate. B. Increased blood pressure. C. Decreased temperature. D. Decreased respiratory rate.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

An aPTT of 90 seconds is much higher than the normal range of 30-40 seconds, which means the blood takes longer to clot and the client is at risk of bleeding. An increased pulse rate is a sign of blood loss and shock.

Choice B is wrong because increased blood pressure is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypertension or stress.

Choice C is wrong because decreased temperature is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypothermia or infection.

Choice D is wrong because decreased respiratory rate is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of respiratory depression or sedation.

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A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving morphine via continuous epidural infusion. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

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A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving morphine via continuous epidural infusion.
The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?