A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving morphine via continuous epidural infusion.
The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Gastric bleeding.
Pruritus.
Cough.
Tachypnea.
The Correct Answer is B
Gastric bleeding can occur due to peptic ulcer disease, nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), or anticoagulants.
Choice C is wrong because cough is not a common adverse effect of morphine administered via continuous epidural infusion.
Cough can be caused by respiratory infections, asthma, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Choice D is wrong because tachypnea is not a common adverse effect of morphine administered via continuous epidural infusion.
Tachypnea can be caused by hypoxia, anxiety, pain, or fever. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, which is characterized by bradypnea, not tachypnea.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The nurse should plan to take the following action:
A) Mix the medications with a semisolid food for the client.
Mixing the medications with a semisolid food, such as applesauce or pudding, can make it easier for an older adult client with dysphagia to swallow the medications safely. It helps in reducing the risk of choking and aspiration. This approach is typically used for clients who have difficulty swallowing pills.
Options B, C, and D are not recommended for a client with dysphagia:
B) Administering more than one pill at a time can increase the risk of choking and aspiration, which should be avoided.
C) Placing medications on the back of the client's tongue can also lead to difficulty swallowing and an increased risk of aspiration.
D) Tilting the client's head back when administering medications is not recommended as it can lead to aspiration. The head should be kept in a neutral position to support safe swallowing.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The client has a negative sputum culture. This indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen because a negative sputum culture means that the client is no longer infectious and has cleared the tuberculosis bacteria from their lungs.
Choice A is wrong because testing negative for HIV does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. HIV testing is not related to tuberculosis treatment.
Choice C is wrong because having a positive purified protein derivative test does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
A positive PPD test means that the client has been exposed to tuberculosis, but it does not indicate whether the client has an active or latent infection. Choice D is wrong because having liver function test results within the expected reference range does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
Liver function tests are used to monitor for possible adverse effects of isoniazid and rifampin, which can cause hepatotoxicity, but they do not reflect the effectiveness of the treatment.
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