A nurse is preparing to administer the initial dose of penicillin G IM to a client. The nurse should monitor for which of the following as an indication of an allergic reaction following the injection?
Pallor.
Bradycardia.
Urticaria.
Dyspepsia.
The Correct Answer is C
Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin. An allergic reaction is an abnormal response of the immune system to the drug. Other signs and symptoms of penicillin allergy may include skin rash, itching, fever, swelling, shortness of breath, wheezing, runny nose, itchy eyes, and anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a rare but life-threatening condition that affects multiple body systems and requires immediate emergency treatment.
Choice A is wrong because pallor is not a typical sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin.
Pallor means pale skin and may be caused by other conditions such as anemia or shock.
Choice B is wrong because bradycardia is not a typical sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin.
Bradycardia means slow heart rate and may be caused by other conditions such as heart block or medication side effects.
Choice D is wrong because dyspepsia is not a typical sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin.
Dyspepsia means indigestion and may be caused by other conditions such as gastritis or peptic ulcer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The client has a negative sputum culture. This indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen because a negative sputum culture means that the client is no longer infectious and has cleared the tuberculosis bacteria from their lungs.
Choice A is wrong because testing negative for HIV does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. HIV testing is not related to tuberculosis treatment.
Choice C is wrong because having a positive purified protein derivative test does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
A positive PPD test means that the client has been exposed to tuberculosis, but it does not indicate whether the client has an active or latent infection. Choice D is wrong because having liver function test results within the expected reference range does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
Liver function tests are used to monitor for possible adverse effects of isoniazid and rifampin, which can cause hepatotoxicity, but they do not reflect the effectiveness of the treatment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A WBC count of 5,000/mm3 is low and could indicate leukopenia, a possible side effect of amitriptyline. Leukopenia increases the risk of infection and should be reported to the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a total bilirubin of 1.5 mg/dL is within the normal range of 0.3 to 1.9 mg/dL.
Choice C is wrong because a Hct of 44% is within the normal range of 37% to 48% for women and 45% to 52% for men.
Choice D is wrong because a potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L.
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