A nurse is mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe prior to administering it to a client who has diabetes mellitus.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Inject air into the NPH vial.
Withdraw the NPH insulin from the vial.
Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial.
Inject air into the regular insulin vial.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct sequence for mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe is important to ensure proper dosing. The nurse should follow these steps:
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Inject air into the NPH (intermediate-acting) insulin vial: Injecting air into the NPH vial first helps to equalize the pressure in the vial, making it easier to withdraw the insulin later. This step is done first to avoid contaminating the regular insulin vial with NPH insulin.
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Inject air into the regular insulin vial: Next, inject an amount of air equal to the intended regular insulin dose into the regular insulin vial.This also helps to equalize the pressure and makes it easier to withdraw the insulin.
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Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial : The nurse should withdraw the regular insulin first because it is clear and not contaminated. This prevents any NPH insulin from mixing into the regular insulin vial.
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Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial: Finally, the nurse withdraws the NPH insulin. Since the regular insulin has already been drawn up, there is no risk of contaminating the regular insulin with NPH insulin.
This sequence ensures that you don't contaminate the vials, and you accurately withdraw the appropriate doses of each insulin type.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can cause hypotension as an adverse effect when administered intravenously. The nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate during and after the infusion.
Choice Ais wrong because phenytoin does not cause bradycardia. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate that can result from beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin toxicity.
Choice B is wrong because red man syndrome is an adverse reaction to vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Red man syndrome is characterized by flushing, itching, and rash on the face, neck, and upper torso.
Choice Dis wrong because phenytoin does not cause hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is a low blood glucose level that can result from insulin overdose, excessive exercise, or inadequate food intake.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg. Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute. Normal ranges for blood glucose are 70 to 110 mg/dL.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Nitroglycerin transdermal patches are used to prevent episodes of angina (chest pain) in people who have coronary artery disease (narrowing of the blood vessels that supply blood to the heart). They work by relaxing the blood vessels so that the heart does not need to work as hard and therefore does not need as much oxygen.
Choice A is wrong because nitroglycerin transdermal patches cannot be used to treat an attack of angina once it has begun. They can only be used to prevent attacks of angina. If you have chest pain, you should use another form of nitroglycerin, such as sublingual tablets or spray.
Choice B is wrong because headache is a common side effect of nitroglycerin transdermal patches and does not mean that you should stop using them. However, you should tell your doctor if the headaches are severe or do not go away. You may also take acetaminophen to relieve the headache.
Choice D is wrong because you do not need to cover the patch with dry gauze when taking a shower. You may shower while you are wearing a nitroglycerin skin patch. If a patch loosens or falls off, replace it with a fresh one.
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