A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of aplastic anemia. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Aplastic anemia results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12.
Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs.
Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction.
Aplastic anemia is associated with a decreased intake of iron.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Aplastic anemia results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not related to the absorption of vitamin B12. It primarily involves a decrease in the production of blood cells by the bone marrow.
B. Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs: This is the correct information. Aplastic anemia is a condition characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce an adequate number of blood cells, including red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets.
C. Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not associated with an increased rate of RBC destruction. Instead, it is characterized by a reduction in the number of blood cells produced by the bone marrow.
D. Aplastic anemia is associated with a decreased intake of iron: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not related to a decreased intake of iron. It is primarily a disorder of bone marrow function leading to insufficient production of blood cells.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Correct answer: C
A. Bumetanide 1 mg IV bolus every 12 hr is a loop diuretic used to help reduce fluid overload and manage heart failure symptoms. This medication helps remove excess fluid from the body and can be beneficial for a client with acute heart failure following an MI.
B. Laboratory testing of serum potassium upon admission: It is common to monitor serum potassium levels in patients receiving diuretics, especially loop diuretics, to prevent electrolyte imbalances.
C.Administering 0.9% normal saline IV at a continuous rate can potentially exacerbate heart failure by increasing fluid volume, leading to fluid overload and worsening symptoms. In acute heart failure, fluid management is critical, and fluids are typically restricted to prevent further strain on the heart.
D. Morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus every 2 hr PRN pain: Morphine sulfate is prescribed for pain management and is commonly used in acute heart failure situations to relieve anxiety and decrease preload on the heart. The dosing frequency is appropriate as "every 2 hr PRN" indicates it should be administered as needed for pain relief.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Serum amylase: Serum amylase is an enzyme associated with pancreatic function, and its elevation is not specific to myocardial infarction.
B. Unconjugated bilirubin: Elevation of unconjugated bilirubin is associated with liver function and hemolysis, not specifically with myocardial infarction.
C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): While AST may be elevated in conditions affecting the heart, it is not as specific or sensitive for myocardial infarction as troponin I.
D. Troponin I: This is the correct answer. Troponin I is a cardiac-specific biomarker released into the bloodstream when there is damage to cardiac muscle, such as during a myocardial infarction. Troponin I levels start to rise within 3-4 hours after the onset of myocardial infarction, making it a crucial marker for early detection.
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