A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of aplastic anemia. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Aplastic anemia results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12.
Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs.
Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction.
Aplastic anemia is associated with a decreased intake of iron.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Aplastic anemia results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not related to the absorption of vitamin B12. It primarily involves a decrease in the production of blood cells by the bone marrow.
B. Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs: This is the correct information. Aplastic anemia is a condition characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce an adequate number of blood cells, including red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets.
C. Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not associated with an increased rate of RBC destruction. Instead, it is characterized by a reduction in the number of blood cells produced by the bone marrow.
D. Aplastic anemia is associated with a decreased intake of iron: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not related to a decreased intake of iron. It is primarily a disorder of bone marrow function leading to insufficient production of blood cells.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Remove the catheter: Removing the catheter may not be the immediate priority. The nurse should focus on preventing further air entry into the circulation and addressing the symptoms.
B. Replace the infusion system: While ensuring that the infusion system is intact is important, it is not the primary action needed to manage an air embolism.
C. Prepare for chest tube insertion: Chest tube insertion is not the primary intervention for an air embolism. The focus should be on preventing the progression of the embolism and providing supportive care.
D. Place the client on his left side in Trendelenburg position: This is the correct answer. Placing the client on the left side in Trendelenburg position is a maneuver used to trap air in the right atrium, preventing it from traveling to the pulmonary artery. The left side position helps to prevent the air from traveling to the right ventricle and into the pulmonary artery, reducing the risk of further complications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage": This statement is not accurate. While heparin may be used in the treatment of DIC, it is not a lifelong therapy, and the approach to treatment depends on the underlying cause.
B. "DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen": This is the correct answer. DIC is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the clotting cascade, leading to the formation of microthrombi throughout the body. Abnormal coagulation involves the consumption of clotting factors, including fibrinogen.
C. "DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency": This statement is not accurate. DIC is not a genetic disorder, and it is not primarily related to vitamin K deficiency. It is an acquired condition often associated with severe infections, sepsis, trauma, or other critical illnesses.
D. "DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count": This statement is not accurate. In DIC, there is often a decrease in platelet count due to consumption and activation of platelets in the widespread formation of microthrombi.
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