A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of aplastic anemia. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Aplastic anemia results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12.
Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs.
Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction.
Aplastic anemia is associated with a decreased intake of iron.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Aplastic anemia results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not related to the absorption of vitamin B12. It primarily involves a decrease in the production of blood cells by the bone marrow.
B. Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs: This is the correct information. Aplastic anemia is a condition characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce an adequate number of blood cells, including red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets.
C. Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not associated with an increased rate of RBC destruction. Instead, it is characterized by a reduction in the number of blood cells produced by the bone marrow.
D. Aplastic anemia is associated with a decreased intake of iron: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not related to a decreased intake of iron. It is primarily a disorder of bone marrow function leading to insufficient production of blood cells.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Correct answer: C
A. Bumetanide 1 mg IV bolus every 12 hr is a loop diuretic used to help reduce fluid overload and manage heart failure symptoms. This medication helps remove excess fluid from the body and can be beneficial for a client with acute heart failure following an MI.
B. Laboratory testing of serum potassium upon admission: It is common to monitor serum potassium levels in patients receiving diuretics, especially loop diuretics, to prevent electrolyte imbalances.
C.Administering 0.9% normal saline IV at a continuous rate can potentially exacerbate heart failure by increasing fluid volume, leading to fluid overload and worsening symptoms. In acute heart failure, fluid management is critical, and fluids are typically restricted to prevent further strain on the heart.
D. Morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus every 2 hr PRN pain: Morphine sulfate is prescribed for pain management and is commonly used in acute heart failure situations to relieve anxiety and decrease preload on the heart. The dosing frequency is appropriate as "every 2 hr PRN" indicates it should be administered as needed for pain relief.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Bradypnea: Bradypnea refers to abnormally slow breathing. In the context of postoperative atelectasis and hypoxia, the client is more likely to exhibit tachypnea (rapid breathing) as the body attempts to compensate for reduced oxygen levels.
B. Bradycardia: Bradycardia is an abnormally slow heart rate. While hypoxia can lead to changes in heart rate, it is more common to observe tachycardia (increased heart rate) as a compensatory response to decreased oxygen levels.
C. Intercostal retractions: Intercostal retractions occur when the muscles between the ribs pull inward during inspiration. In a client with atelectasis and hypoxia, increased respiratory effort may result in intercostal retractions as the body tries to enhance airflow and improve oxygenation.
D. Lethargy: Lethargy refers to a state of drowsiness or fatigue. While hypoxia can lead to lethargy, it is not a specific respiratory manifestation. Other respiratory signs, such as increased respiratory rate and retractions, are more likely to be observed.
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