A nurse is admitting a client who has acute heart failure following myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse recognizes that which of the following prescriptions by the provider requires clarification?
Laboratory testing of serum potassium upon admission
Bumetanide 1 mg IV bolus every 12 hr
0.9% normal saline IV at 50 mL/hr continuous
Morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus every 2 hr PRN pain
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason: This choice is incorrect because laboratory testing of serum potassium upon admission is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Serum potassium is an electrolyte that affects the cardiac function and rhythm. A normal serum potassium range is 3.5 to 5 mEq/L, and an abnormal level can indicate hypokalemia or hyperkalemia, which can cause arrhythmias, muscle weakness, or paralysis. Therefore, monitoring serum potassium is important to detect and correct any electrolyte imbalance and prevent complications.
Choice B Reason: This choice is incorrect because bumetanide 1 mg IV bolus every 12 hr is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that helps to reduce fluid retention and edema by increasing the urine output and sodium excretion. It may be used for clients who have heart failure, hypertension, or renal impairment, but it can cause hypokalemia, hypotension, or dehydration.
Therefore, administering bumetanide as prescribed can help to improve the cardiac output and reduce the preload and afterload.
Choice C Reason: This choice is correct because 0.9% normal saline IV at 50 mL/hr continuous is an inappropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. 0.9% normal saline is an isotonic solution that contains the same concentration of solutes as blood plasma. It may be used for clients who have fluid loss, dehydration, or shock, but it can worsen fluid overload and pulmonary edema in clients who have acute heart failure. Therefore, clarifying this prescription with the provider is necessary to prevent further deterioration of the client's condition.
Choice D Reason: This choice is incorrect because morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus every 2 hr PRN pain is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic that helps to relieve pain and anxiety by binding to the opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord. It may be used for clients who have moderate to severe pain, dyspnea, or chest discomfort, but it can cause respiratory depression, hypotension, or nausea. Therefore, administering morphine sulfate as prescribed can help to reduce the oxygen demand and improve the cardiac function.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["24"]
Explanation
- To find the concentration of heparin in the solution, divide the amount of heparin by the volume of D5W: 25,000 units / 500 mL = 50 units/mL
- To find the infusion rate, divide the prescribed dose by the concentration: 1,200 units/hr / 50 units/mL = 24 mL/hr
- Round the answer to the nearest tenth/whole number: 24 mL/hr
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This choice is incorrect because inserting a central line is not a priority action for a client who has a sucking chest wound. A central line is a catheter that is inserted into a large vein in the neck, chest, or groin to administer fluids, medications, or blood products. It may be indicated for clients who have hypovolemia, sepsis, or shock, but it does not address the underlying cause of the client's respiratory distress.
Choice B Reason: This choice is incorrect because removing the dressing to inspect the wound may worsen the client's condition. A sucking chest wound is an open wound in the chest wall that allows air to enter and exit the pleural cavity with each breath. This creates a positive pressure in the pleural space that collapses the lung on the affected side and shifts the mediastinum to the opposite side, impairing the ventilation and circulation of both lungs. Therefore, the nurse should apply an occlusive dressing that covers three sides of the wound and allows air to escape but not enter the pleural cavity. Removing the dressing may allow more air to enter and increase the risk of tension pneumothorax, which is a life-threatening complication.
Choice C Reason: This choice is correct because administering oxygen via nasal cannula may help to improve the client's oxygenation and ventilation. A nasal cannula is a device that delivers oxygen through two prongs that fit into the nostrils. It can provide oxygen at low flow rates (1 to 6 L/min) and low concentrations (24 to 44 percent). The nurse should monitor the client's respiratory rate, pulse oximetry, and arterial blood gases to assess the effectiveness of oxygen therapy.
Choice D Reason: This choice is incorrect because raising the foot of the bed to a 90° angle may worsen the client's respiratory distress. This position may increase the pressure on the diaphragm and reduce the lung expansion. It may also decrease the venous return and cardiac output, leading to hypotension and shock. Therefore, the nurse should position the client in a semi-Fowler's position (30 to 45° angle) or high-Fowler's position (60 to 90° angle) to facilitate breathing and prevent further complications.
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