A nurse is caring for a client 4 hr following evacuation of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
Respiratory status
Temperature
Intracranial pressure
Serum electrolytes
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is a. Respiratory status.
Choice A: Respiratory Status
Reason: After the evacuation of a subdural hematoma, monitoring the respiratory status is crucial. This is because changes in respiratory patterns can indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP) or brainstem compression, which are life-threatening conditions. Ensuring that the airway is clear and that the patient is breathing adequately is the top priority. Normal respiratory rate for adults is 12-20 breaths per minute.
Choice B: Temperature
Reason: While monitoring temperature is important to detect infections or other complications, it is not the immediate priority in the acute postoperative period following a subdural hematoma evacuation. Fever can indicate infection, but it is less likely to cause immediate life-threatening complications compared to respiratory issues.
Choice C: Intracranial Pressure
Reason: Monitoring intracranial pressure (ICP) is very important in patients with brain injuries. Normal ICP ranges from 5-15 mmHg. However, changes in respiratory status can be an early indicator of increased ICP. Therefore, while ICP monitoring is critical, ensuring the patient’s respiratory status is stable takes precedence.
Choice D: Serum Electrolytes
Reason: Serum electrolytes are important to monitor for overall metabolic stability and to detect imbalances that could affect neurological function. Normal ranges for key electrolytes are: Sodium (135-145 mEq/L), Potassium (3.5-4.5 mEq/L), and Chloride (80-100 mEq/L). However, these are not the immediate priority in the acute phase following surgery compared to respiratory status.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This choice is incorrect because urinary hesitancy is not the priority finding for the nurse to address.
Urinary hesitancy is a difficulty or delay in starting or maintaining a urine stream. It may be caused by various factors such as prostate enlargement, urinary tract infection, medication side effects, or psychological issues. It may cause discomfort, pain, or urinary retention, but it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life.
ChoiceB Reason: This choice is correct because dysphagia is the priority finding for the nurse to address. Dysphagia is a difficulty or inability to swallow food or liquids. It may be caused by various factors such as stroke, Parkinson's disease, dementia, esophageal cancer, or oral infections. It may cause malnutrition, dehydration, aspiration, or choking, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia, sepsis, or death. Therefore, the nurse should assess the client's swallowing function and provide appropriate interventions such as modifying the diet texture, using thickening agents, or teaching swallowing techniques.
ChoiceC Reason: This choice is incorrect because swollen gums are not the priority finding for the nurse to address. Swollen gums are an inflammation or enlargement of the gingival tissue that surrounds the teeth. They may be caused by various factors such as poor oral hygiene, gum disease, vitamin deficiency, medication side effects, or hormonal changes. They may cause bleeding, pain, or infection, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life.
Choice D Reason: This choice is incorrect because pruritus is not the priority finding for the nurse to address. Pruritus is a sensation of itching that affects the skin. It may be caused by various factors such as dry skin, allergies, eczema, psoriasis, liver disease, or kidney disease. It may cause discomfort, scratching, or skin damage, but it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because the client is not unconscious, as the GCS score ranges from 3 to 15, with 3 being the lowest possible score and indicating deep coma or death.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because the client can follow simple motor commands, as the GCS score for best motor response is 5, which means the client can localize pain by moving his limbs away from the source of stimulation.To interpret the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score provided in the scenario:Eye Opening (E): 3 - The client opens their eyes in response to verbal stimuli.Best Verbal Response (V): 5 - The client is oriented and able to engage in coherent conversation.Best Motor Response (M): 5 - The client can localize pain or follow motor commands (depending on additional context). The total GCS score would be 3 + 5 + 5 = 13, indicating a mild level of impairment or responsiveness.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because the client is able to make vocal sounds, as the GCS score for best verbal response is 5, which means the client can orient himself to person, place, and time.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because the client does not open his eyes when spoken to, as the GCS score for eye opening is 3, which means the client only opens his eyes in response to pain.
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