A nurse is caring for a client who has quadriplegia from a spinal cord injury and reports having a severe headache. The nurse obtains a blood pressure reading of 210/108 mm Hg and suspects the client is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Choice A Reason: Dextran 70 is not a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who has a traumatic head injury and is exhibiting signs of increasing intracranial pressure. Dextran 70 is a plasma expander that increases the blood volume and viscosity, which can worsen the intracranial pressure by increasing the cerebral blood flow and edema.

Choice B Reason: Hydroxyethyl starch is not a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who has a traumatic head injury and is exhibiting signs of increasing intracranial pressure. Hydroxyethyl starch is another plasma expander that has similar effects as dextran 70, and can also increase the risk of coagulopathy and renal failure.

Choice C Reason: Albumin 25% is not a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who has a traumatic head injury and is exhibiting signs of increasing intracranial pressure. Albumin 25% is a colloid solution that increases the oncotic pressure and draws fluid from the interstitial space into the intravascular space, which can also worsen the intracranial pressure by increasing the cerebral blood flow and edema.

Choice D Reason: Mannitol 25% is a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who has a traumatic head injury and is exhibiting signs of increasing intracranial pressure. Mannitol 25% is an osmotic diuretic that reduces the intracranial pressure by creating an osmotic gradient and drawing fluid from the brain tissue into the blood vessels, which can then be excreted by the kidneys. The nurse should monitor the urine output, serum osmolality, and electrolytes when administering mannitol 25%.

Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is post-CABG and has high cholesterol is not in immediate danger, as atorvastatin is a long-term medication that lowers cholesterol and prevents cardiovascular complications.

Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has pneumonia and a slightly elevated WBC count is not in immediate danger, as piperacillin is an antibiotic that treats bacterial infections.

Choice C Reason: This is correct because a client who has renal failure and a high serum potassium level is in immediate danger, as sodium polystyrene sulfonate is an emergency medication that lowers potassium and prevents cardiac arrhythmias.

Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has anemia and a mild hemoglobin deficiency is not in immediate danger, as epoetin alfa is a long-term medication that stimulates red blood cell production and improves oxygen delivery.