A nurse is assessing a client's cranial nerves as part of a neurological examination. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to assess cranial nerve III?

Eliciting the gag reﬂex

Testing visual acuity

Observing for facial symmetry

Checking the pupillary response to light

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A: Eliciting the gag reﬂex is a way to assess cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal) and X (vagus), which are responsible for the sensation and motor function of the pharynx and larynx.

Choice B: Testing visual acuity is a way to assess cranial nerve II (optic), which is responsible for the sense of vision.

Choice C: Observing for facial symmetry is a way to assess cranial nerve VII (facial), which is responsible for the motor function of the facial muscles and the sensation of taste.

Choice D: Checking the pupillary response to light is a way to assess cranial nerve III (oculomotor), which is responsible for the motor function of most of the eye muscles, including those that control pupil size and lens shape.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because the client is not unconscious, as the GCS score ranges from 3 to 15, with 3 being the lowest possible score and indicating deep coma or death.

Choice B Reason: This is correct because the client can follow simple motor commands, as the GCS score for best motor response is 5, which means the client can localize pain by moving his limbs away from the source of stimulation.To interpret the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score provided in the scenario:Eye Opening (E): 3 - The client opens their eyes in response to verbal stimuli.Best Verbal Response (V): 5 - The client is oriented and able to engage in coherent conversation.Best Motor Response (M): 5 - The client can localize pain or follow motor commands (depending on additional context). The total GCS score would be 3 + 5 + 5 = 13, indicating a mild level of impairment or responsiveness.

Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because the client is able to make vocal sounds, as the GCS score for best verbal response is 5, which means the client can orient himself to person, place, and time.

Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because the client does not open his eyes when spoken to, as the GCS score for eye opening is 3, which means the client only opens his eyes in response to pain.

A. Hypervolemia B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Low hemoglobin D. Hyperkalemia

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because hypervolemia is a condition of excess ﬂuid volume in the body. A client who has an extensive burn injury is more likely to have hypovolemia, which is a condition of low ﬂuid volume, due to ﬂuid loss from the damaged skin and capillaries.

Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because metabolic alkalosis is a condition of high blood pH and high bicarbonate level. A client who has an extensive burn injury is more likely to have metabolic acidosis, which is a condition of low blood pH and low bicarbonate level, due to increased production of lactic acid and ketones from tissue hypoxia and breakdown.

Choice C Reason: This is correct because low hemoglobin is a common laboratory finding in a client who has an extensive burn injury. Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen. A client who has an extensive burn injury may have low hemoglobin due to hemolysis, which is the destruction of red blood cells, or hemorrhage, which is the loss of blood.

Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because hyperkalemia is a condition of high blood potassium level. A client who has an extensive burn injury may have hyperkalemia in the early phase of injury, due to cell damage and potassium release, but it is usually transient and followed by hypokalemia, which is a condition of low blood potassium level, due to ﬂuid loss and potassium depletion.

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A nurse is assessing a client's cranial nerves as part of a neurological examination. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to assess cranial nerve III?

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