A nurse is assessing a client's cranial nerves as part of a neurological examination. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to assess cranial nerve III?
Eliciting the gag reflex
Testing visual acuity
Observing for facial symmetry
Checking the pupillary response to light
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A: Eliciting the gag reflex is a way to assess cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal) and X (vagus), which are responsible for the sensation and motor function of the pharynx and larynx.
Choice B: Testing visual acuity is a way to assess cranial nerve II (optic), which is responsible for the sense of vision.
Choice C: Observing for facial symmetry is a way to assess cranial nerve VII (facial), which is responsible for the motor function of the facial muscles and the sensation of taste.
Choice D: Checking the pupillary response to light is a way to assess cranial nerve III (oculomotor), which is responsible for the motor function of most of the eye muscles, including those that control pupil size and lens shape.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because preparing for mechanical ventilation is not the priority nursing intervention, as it is an invasive and potentially harmful procedure that should be reserved for clients who have severe respiratory failure and cannot maintain adequate oxygenation with noninvasive methods.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because administering oxygen via face mask is the priority nursing intervention, as it is a noninvasive and effective way to improve oxygenation and reduce hypoxemia in a client who has low PaO2 and SaO2. Oxygen therapy can also decrease the workload of the heart and lungs and prevent further complications.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because preparing to administer a sedative is not the priority nursing intervention, as it may worsen the client's respiratory status and mask the signs and symptoms of hypoxemia. Sedatives should be used with caution and only after oxygenation has been optimized.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because assessing for indications of pulmonary embolism is not the priority nursing intervention, as it is a diagnostic rather than a therapeutic action. Pulmonary embolism is a possible cause of the client's condition, but it does not address the immediate problem of hypoxemia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not within the expected reference range in a client who has DIC. DIC is a condition that causes abnormal activation of the clotting cascade, leading to widespread microthrombi formation and consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This results in bleeding complications and organ dysfunction.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because the laboratory values are prolonged in a client who has DIC. PT, aPTT, and INR are tests that measure the time it takes for blood to clot. PT measures the extrinsic pathway, aPTT measures the intrinsic pathway, and INR is a standardized ratio of PT. In DIC, these tests are prolonged because of the depletion of clotting factors and platelets.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not the same as the previous test values in a client who has DIC. DIC is an acute and dynamic condition that can change rapidly depending on the underlying cause and treatment. The laboratory values may fluctuate between normal, prolonged, or shortened depending on the balance between clotting and bleeding.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not decreased in a client who has DIC. Decreased laboratory values would indicate a shortened clotting time, which can occur in some cases of DIC when there is excessive clotting and thrombosis. However, this is not the typical finding in DIC, as most clients present with bleeding manifestations and prolonged clotting time.
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