A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing Cushing's triad following a subdural hematoma. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Albumin 25%
Dextran 70
Mannitol 25%
Hydroxyethyl starch
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason: Albumin 25% is not a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who is experiencing Cushing's triad following a subdural hematoma. Albumin 25% is a colloid solution that increases the oncotic pressure and draws fluid from the interstitial space into the intravascular space, which can worsen the intracranial pressure by increasing the cerebral blood flow and edema.
Choice B Reason: Dextran 70 is not a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who is experiencing Cushing's triad following a subdural hematoma. Dextran 70 is a plasma expander that increases the blood volume and viscosity, which can also worsen the intracranial pressure by increasing the cerebral blood flow and edema.
Choice C Reason: Mannitol 25% is a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who is experiencing Cushing's triad following a subdural hematoma. Mannitol 25% is an osmotic diuretic that reduces the intracranial pressure by creating an osmotic gradient and drawing fluid from the brain tissue into the blood vessels, which can then be excreted by the kidneys. The nurse should monitor the urine output, serum osmolality, and electrolytes when administering mannitol 25%.
Choice D Reason: Hydroxyethyl starch is not a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who is experiencing Cushing's triad following a subdural hematoma. Hydroxyethyl starch is another plasma expander that has similar effects as dextran 70, and can also increase the risk of coagulopathy and renal failure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: Contacting the provider for further orders is not necessary, because the client has type AB blood, which is compatible with any other blood type. The client can receive type B blood without any adverse reactions.
Choice B: Notifying the blood bank of the discrepancy is not required, because there is no discrepancy. The blood bank sent the correct type of blood for the client, according to their blood type.
Choice C: Administering the blood as ordered is the correct action, because type B blood is compatible with type AB blood. The client will not have any transfusion reactions or complications from receiving this type of blood.
Choice D: Completing an incident report is not appropriate, because there is no incident. The nurse did not make any error or mistake in administering the blood to the client. There is no need to document or report anything unusual.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because a thrombotic stroke is caused by a clot that forms in a cerebral artery, usually due to atherosclerosis. It typically occurs gradually and does not cause a sudden, severe headache or seizure.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because an embolic stroke is caused by a clot that travels from another part of the body, such as the heart, to a cerebral artery. It usually occurs abruptly and does not cause vomiting or fever.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because a transient ischemic atack (TIA) is caused by a temporary interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain. It usually lasts less than an hour and does not cause permanent brain damage or loss of consciousness.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because a hemorrhagic stroke is caused by a rupture of a blood vessel in the brain, resulting in bleeding into the brain tissue or the subarachnoid space. It usually causes a sudden, severe headache, vomiting, seizure, and loss of consciousness. It can also cause elevated blood pressure, fever, and increased intracranial pressure.
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