A nurse is preparing to administer an osmotic diuretic IV to a client with increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following should the nurse identify as the purpose of the medication?
Reduce edema of the brain.
Increase cell size in the brain.
Expand extracellular fluid volume.
Provide fluid hydration.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: This is correct because an osmotic diuretic, such as mannitol, works by creating an osmotic gradient that draws fluid from the brain tissue into the blood vessels, thereby reducing cerebral edema and intracranial pressure.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would decrease, not increase, the cell size in the brain by removing fluid from the intracellular space.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would decrease, not expand, the extracellular fluid volume by increasing the urine output and excreting excess fluid from the body.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would not provide fluid hydration, but rather cause fluid loss and dehydration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is correct because respiratory acidosis is characterized by a low pH and a high PaCO2, indicating that the client has impaired ventilation and excess carbon dioxide in the blood.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a high pH and a low PaCO2, indicating that the client has increased ventilation and reduced carbon dioxide in the blood.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH and a low HCO3, indicating that the client has an excess of metabolic acids or a loss of base in the blood.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a high pH and a high HCO3, indicating that the client has an excess of base or a loss of metabolic acids in the blood.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is post-CABG and has high cholesterol is not in immediate danger, as atorvastatin is a long-term medication that lowers cholesterol and prevents cardiovascular complications.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has pneumonia and a slightly elevated WBC count is not in immediate danger, as piperacillin is an antibiotic that treats bacterial infections.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because a client who has renal failure and a high serum potassium level is in immediate danger, as sodium polystyrene sulfonate is an emergency medication that lowers potassium and prevents cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has anemia and a mild hemoglobin deficiency is not in immediate danger, as epoetin alfa is a long-term medication that stimulates red blood cell production and improves oxygen delivery.
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