A nurse is preparing to administer an osmotic diuretic IV to a client with increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following should the nurse identify as the purpose of the medication?
Reduce edema of the brain.
Increase cell size in the brain.
Expand extracellular fluid volume.
Provide fluid hydration.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: This is correct because an osmotic diuretic, such as mannitol, works by creating an osmotic gradient that draws fluid from the brain tissue into the blood vessels, thereby reducing cerebral edema and intracranial pressure.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would decrease, not increase, the cell size in the brain by removing fluid from the intracellular space.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would decrease, not expand, the extracellular fluid volume by increasing the urine output and excreting excess fluid from the body.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because an osmotic diuretic would not provide fluid hydration, but rather cause fluid loss and dehydration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Dobutamine is a positive inotropic agent that increases the contractility of the heart and improves cardiac output. This leads to increased renal perfusion and urine output, which reduces the fluid overload and edema associated with heart failure. Therefore, this choice is correct.
Choice B Reason: Dobutamine does not have a direct effect on blood glucose level. It may cause hyperglycemia as a side effect, but this is not an indication of its effectiveness. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Choice C Reason: Dobutamine may cause a slight decrease in blood pressure due to vasodilation, but this is not its main therapeutic effect. A significant decrease in blood pressure may indicate hypovolemia, hypotension, or shock, which are adverse effects of dobutamine. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Choice D Reason: Dobutamine also has a positive chronotropic effect, which means it increases the heart rate. However, this is not a desired outcome for a client with heart failure, as it increases the oxygen demand of the heart and may worsen the condition. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because administering a nitrate antihypertensive is not the first action, as it may cause a rapid drop in blood pressure and worsen the client's condition.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because obtaining the client's heart rate is not the first action, as it does not address the cause of autonomic dysreflexia or relieve the symptoms.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because assessing the client for bladder distention is not the first action, as it may take time and delay the treatment of autonomic dysreflexia.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because placing the client in a high-Fowler's position is the first action, as it lowers the blood pressure by promoting venous return and reducing cardiac preload.
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