A nurse in an emergency department is reviewing the medical record of a client who is having an acute myocardial infarction.
Which of the following findings places the client at risk if he receives alteplase?
Family history of malignant hypertension.
Hip arthroplasty 1 week ago.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
Acute renal failure 6 months ago.
The Correct Answer is B
Alteplase is a drug that dissolves blood clots by converting plasminogen to plasmin. It can be used for acute ischemic stroke, but it has some contraindications that depend on the indication and the type of administration of the drug. Some common contraindications for alteplase are hypersensitivity, active internal bleeding, a history of intracranial hemorrhage, bleeding disorders, and high blood pressure. Other contraindications may vary depending on the specific condition and the time window of treatment. Alteplase can cause serious or fatal bleeding as a side effect.
Choice A is wrong because a family history of malignant hypertension is not an absolute contraindication for alteplase, although uncontrolled hypertension (>185 mmHg SBP or >110 mmHg DBP) is.
Choice C is wrong because chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not a contraindication for alteplase, although it may increase the risk of pulmonary hemorrhage.
Choice D is wrong because acute renal failure 6 months ago is not a contraindication for alteplase, although the current use of direct thrombin inhibitors or direct factor Xa inhibitors is.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are <120/80 mmHg for normal, 120-129/<80 mmHg for elevated, 130-139/80-89 mmHg for stage 1 hypertension, and ≥140/≥90 mmHg for stage 2 hypertension.
Normal ranges for platelet count are 150,000 to 450,000 platelets per microliter of blood.
Normal ranges for INR are 0.8 to 1.2 for people who are not taking blood thinners and 2 to 3 for people who are taking warfarin.
Normal ranges for aPTT are 25 to 35 seconds for people who are not taking blood thinners and 46 to 70 seconds for people who are taking heparin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta implants in the lower part of the uterus, partly or completely covering the cervical opening.
This can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, usually in the third trimester. Spotting is a sign of placenta previa and should be reported to the provider immediately. Choice A is wrong because nausea is not a specific finding of placenta previa.
Nausea can occur in normal pregnancy or in other conditions such as hyperemesis gravidarum or preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because polyhydramnios is not a finding of placenta previa.
Polyhydramnios is a condition where there is too much amniotic fluid in the uterus, which can cause complications such as preterm labor, cord prolapse, or fetal malformations.
Choice C is wrong because uterine tenderness is not a finding of placenta previa.
Uterine tenderness is a sign of abruptio placentae, which is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery.
This can cause severe abdominal pain, dark red vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress.
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
Preterm pre-labor rupture of membranes (PROM) is the spontaneous rupture of the amniotic sac before the onset of labor in a pregnancy less than 37 weeks gestation. It can lead to
infection, cord prolapse, placental abruption, and preterm delivery. The client has risk factors for PROM such as a history of preterm birth and a current infection indicated by fever.
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the body’s response to an infection causes damage to its own tissues and organs. The client has signs of sepsis such as fever, tachycardia, and possible organ dysfunction. The client may have a urinary tract infection, a common cause of sepsis in pregnancy, or an intrauterine infection due to PROM or other factors.
Preeclampsia is not a likely complication for this client because she does not have high blood pressure or proteinuria, which are the defining features of preeclampsia. Seizures are not a likely complication for this client because she does not have epilepsy or eclampsia, which are the leading causes of seizures in pregnancy. Placenta previa is not a likely complication for this client because she does not have painless vaginal bleeding, which is the hallmark symptom of placenta previa.
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