A quality control nurse is reviewing medication prescriptions for a group of clients.

Which of the following medication prescriptions should the nurse identify as being complete?

Cimetidine PO twice daily.

Tetracycline 200 mg PO.

Epoetin alfa 150 units/kg three times weekly.

Digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. Answer and explanation.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

This prescription is complete because it includes the medication name, dose, route, and frequency.

A complete prescription should also include the client’s name, date, time, signature of the prescriber, and any special instructions.

Choice A is wrong because it does not specify the dose of cimetidine.

PO twice daily is not enough information to administer the medication safely.

Choice B is wrong because it does not specify the frequency of tetracycline.

200 mg PO is not enough information to administer the medication safely.

Choice C is wrong because it does not specify the route of epoetin alfa.

150 units/kg three times weekly is not enough information to administer the medication safely.

Normal ranges for digoxin are 0.5 to 2 ng/mL for heart failure and 0.8 to 2 ng/mL for atrial fibrillation.

Normal ranges for cimetidine are 50 to 150 ng/mL.

Normal ranges for tetracycline are 1 to 10 mcg/mL.

Normal ranges for epoetin alfa are not applicable as it is a synthetic hormone that stimulates red blood cell production.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D. Place a wedge under one of the client’s hips. This is because placing a wedge under one of the hips can help prevent compression of the inferior vena cava by the uterus, which can compromise placental blood flow and cause fetal hypoxia. Placing a wedge under the hip can also help reduce the risk of maternal hypotension, which can also affect fetal oxygenation.

Choice A is wrong because inserting a pillow under the client’s knees can increase the risk of thromboembolism, which is a potential complication of cesarean birth.

Choice B is wrong because positioning the client in reverse Trendelenburg can increase the risk of maternal aspiration, which is another potential complication of cesarean birth.

Choice C is wrong because assisting the client into the lithotomy position can also compress the inferior vena cava and reduce placental blood flow. The lithotomy position is also not necessary for cesarean birth, as the baby is delivered through an incision in the abdomen and uterus.

A. The client withdraws from pain B. The client is unable to obey commands. C. The client opens eyes to sound D. The client is oriented times three

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D. The client is oriented times three.

This means that the client knows who they are, where they are, and what time it is. This indicates a high level of consciousness and a normal Glasgow coma scale (GCS) rating of 15.

Choice A is wrong because the client withdraws from pain.

This means that the client reacts to a painful stimulus by pulling away from it. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 4 for motor response.

Choice B is wrong because the client is unable to obey commands.

This means that the client does not follow simple instructions such as moving a limb or opening their eyes. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 1 or 2 for motor response.

Choice C is wrong because the client opens eyes to sound.

This means that the client does not open their eyes spontaneously, but only when they hear a loud noise. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 3 for eye opening.

The Glasgow coma scale is a clinical tool used to assess the level of consciousness of a person after a brain injury.

It consists of three tests: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.

Each test has a score range from 1 to 6, with higher scores indicating higher levels of consciousness. The total score ranges from 3 to 15, with lower scores indicating higher risk of death.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A quality control nurse is reviewing medication prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following medication prescriptions should the nurse identify as being complete?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is positioning a client for a cesarean birth. To prevent a compromise in placental blood flow during the intraoperative period, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client following a motor-vehicle crash. The client’s Glasgow coma scale rating is 15. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion. For which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse monitor the client

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing expressive aphasia and right hemiparesis following a stroke. Which of the following actions by the nurse best promotes communication among staff caring for the client?

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following the surgical repair of a detached retina. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A nurse at a community health clinic is planning care for an adolescent who recently learned that she is pregnant and is concerned about her ability to afford and care for her baby. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A nurse is caring for a client who has given informed consent for electroconvulsive therapy. Just before the procedure, the client tells the nurse she is considering not going forward with the treatment.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for 1 unit of packed RBCs. Five minutes after beginning the transfusion, the client becomes febrile with chills. After stopping the transfusion, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A home health nurse is caring for a child who has Lyme disease. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?

A nurse is planning care for a client who is scheduled to receive a peripherally inserted central catheter in the arm. Which of the following interventions is appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

A quality control nurse is reviewing medication prescriptions for a group of clients.

Which of the following medication prescriptions should the nurse identify as being complete?