A quality control nurse is reviewing medication prescriptions for a group of clients.
Which of the following medication prescriptions should the nurse identify as being complete?
Cimetidine PO twice daily.
Tetracycline 200 mg PO.
Epoetin alfa 150 units/kg three times weekly.
Digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. Answer and explanation.
The Correct Answer is D
This prescription is complete because it includes the medication name, dose, route, and frequency.
A complete prescription should also include the client’s name, date, time, signature of the prescriber, and any special instructions.
Choice A is wrong because it does not specify the dose of cimetidine.
PO twice daily is not enough information to administer the medication safely.
Choice B is wrong because it does not specify the frequency of tetracycline.
200 mg PO is not enough information to administer the medication safely.
Choice C is wrong because it does not specify the route of epoetin alfa.
150 units/kg three times weekly is not enough information to administer the medication safely.
Normal ranges for digoxin are 0.5 to 2 ng/mL for heart failure and 0.8 to 2 ng/mL for atrial fibrillation.
Normal ranges for cimetidine are 50 to 150 ng/mL.
Normal ranges for tetracycline are 1 to 10 mcg/mL.
Normal ranges for epoetin alfa are not applicable as it is a synthetic hormone that stimulates red blood cell production.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Ketorolac is incorrect because it is an NSAID that is used for short-term pain relief. It has a higher risk of causing irritation to the stomach lining and is not recommended for clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
Choice B reason:
Acetaminophen is the correct answer. When caring for a client who reports a headache and has a history of a peptic ulcer, the nurse should administer Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen is an analgesic (pain reliever) and antipyretic (fever reducer) that does not have anti-inflammatory properties. It is a suitable option for pain relief in clients with a history of peptic ulcers because it is less likely to cause irritation to the stomach lining compared to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
Choice C reason
Aspirin is not appropriate: Aspirin is an NSAID with anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic properties. Like other NSAIDs, it can increase the risk of stomach irritation and should be avoided in clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
Choice D reason:
Ibuprofen is not the right option: Ibuprofen is another NSAID commonly used for pain relief and reducing inflammation and fever. Like other NSAIDs, it can irritate the stomach lining and is not recommended for clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because abruptly stopping TPN can cause hypoglycemia, which is a low blood sugar level that can cause shakiness, diaphoresis, confusion, and seizures. Therefore, infusing dextrose 10% in water temporarily at the same rate as the TPN can prevent this adverse effect. Dextrose 10% in water is a hypertonic solution that contains 340 calories per liter and can maintain the client’s blood glucose level until the new TPN bag arrives.
Choice A is wrong because giving 500 mL of lactated Ringer’s solution would not provide enough calories or glucose to prevent hypoglycemia. Lactated Ringer’s solution is an isotonic solution that contains electrolytes but no calories or glucose.
Choice B is wrong because temporarily discontinuing the infusion would cause hypoglycemia, which can be life-threatening for the client.
Choice C is wrong because slowing the TPN infusion rate would also cause hypoglycemia, as the client would receive less calories and glucose than prescribed.
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