A nurse is monitoring the pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) for a client. The nurse should identify that a reading of 17 mm Hg is an indication of which of the following conditions?
Right ventricular failure
Fluid volume deficit
Mitral regurgitation
Afterload reduction
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because right ventricular failure would cause an increase in right atrial pressure and right ventricular end-diastolic pressure, but not in PAWP, which reflects left atrial pressure and left ventricular end- diastolic pressure.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because fluid volume deficit would cause a decrease in PAWP, as there would be less blood volume in the pulmonary circulation.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because mitral regurgitation would cause an increase in PAWP, as the blood would back up into the left atrium and pulmonary veins due to the incompetent mitral valve.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because afterload reduction would cause a decrease in PAWP, as there would be less resistance to the left ventricular ejection and less blood volume in the pulmonary circulation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is correct because a client who is short of breath is in immediate danger, as it indicates a possible respiratory compromise or failure. The nurse should assess the client's oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, and lung sounds, and provide oxygen therapy as needed.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because a client who received oral pain medication 30 min ago is not in immediate danger, as it indicates that the client's pain has been managed and the medication has had time to take effect.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is scheduled for an abdominal x-ray and is awaiting transport is not in immediate danger, as it indicates that the client's condition is stable and the diagnostic test is not urgent.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has a prescription for discharge is not in immediate danger, as it indicates that the client's condition has improved and the client is ready to leave the hospital.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because preparing for mechanical ventilation is not the priority nursing intervention, as it is an invasive and potentially harmful procedure that should be reserved for clients who have severe respiratory failure and cannot maintain adequate oxygenation with noninvasive methods.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because administering oxygen via face mask is the priority nursing intervention, as it is a noninvasive and effective way to improve oxygenation and reduce hypoxemia in a client who has low PaO2 and SaO2. Oxygen therapy can also decrease the workload of the heart and lungs and prevent further complications.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because preparing to administer a sedative is not the priority nursing intervention, as it may worsen the client's respiratory status and mask the signs and symptoms of hypoxemia. Sedatives should be used with caution and only after oxygenation has been optimized.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because assessing for indications of pulmonary embolism is not the priority nursing intervention, as it is a diagnostic rather than a therapeutic action. Pulmonary embolism is a possible cause of the client's condition, but it does not address the immediate problem of hypoxemia.
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