A nurse is monitoring a client who was admited with a severe burn injury and is receiving IV fluid resuscitation therapy. The nurse should identify a decrease in which of the following findings as an indication of adequate fluid replacement?
Urine output
Heart rate
Weight
Blood pressure
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason: Urine output is not a finding that should decrease with adequate fluid replacement. On the contrary, urine output should increase as the fluid therapy restores the renal perfusion and function. The nurse should monitor the urine output and ensure that it is at least 0.5 mL/kg/hr for adults and 1 mL/kg/hr for children.
Choice B Reason: Heart rate is a finding that should decrease with adequate fluid replacement. A high heart rate is a sign of hypovolemia, which occurs when the burn injury causes fluid loss from the intravascular space. The nurse should monitor the heart rate and expect it to decrease as the fluid therapy replenishes the blood volume and improves the cardiac output.
Choice C Reason: Weight is not a finding that should decrease with adequate fluid replacement. On the contrary, weight may increase as the fluid therapy restores the hydration status and corrects the fluid deficit. The nurse should monitor the weight and compare it with the pre-burn weight to evaluate the fluid balance.
Choice D Reason: Blood pressure is not a finding that should decrease with adequate fluid replacement. On the contrary, blood pressure may increase as the fluid therapy restores the vascular tone and improves the tissue perfusion. The nurse should monitor the blood pressure and expect it to increase as the fluid therapy compensates for the fluid loss.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because a thrombotic stroke is caused by a clot that forms in a cerebral artery, usually due to atherosclerosis. It typically occurs gradually and does not cause a sudden, severe headache or seizure.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because an embolic stroke is caused by a clot that travels from another part of the body, such as the heart, to a cerebral artery. It usually occurs abruptly and does not cause vomiting or fever.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because a transient ischemic atack (TIA) is caused by a temporary interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain. It usually lasts less than an hour and does not cause permanent brain damage or loss of consciousness.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because a hemorrhagic stroke is caused by a rupture of a blood vessel in the brain, resulting in bleeding into the brain tissue or the subarachnoid space. It usually causes a sudden, severe headache, vomiting, seizure, and loss of consciousness. It can also cause elevated blood pressure, fever, and increased intracranial pressure.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because administering a nitrate antihypertensive is not the first action, as it may cause a rapid drop in blood pressure and worsen the client's condition.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because obtaining the client's heart rate is not the first action, as it does not address the cause of autonomic dysreflexia or relieve the symptoms.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because assessing the client for bladder distention is not the first action, as it may take time and delay the treatment of autonomic dysreflexia.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because placing the client in a high-Fowler's position is the first action, as it lowers the blood pressure by promoting venous return and reducing cardiac preload.
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