A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving dopamine IV to treat left ventricular failure. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is having a therapeutic effect?
Systolic blood pressure is increased
Radial heart rate is increased
Cardiac output is reduced
Urine output is reduced
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: This is correct because dopamine is a vasopressor that increases the contractility and stroke volume of the heart, which results in an increased systolic blood pressure.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because dopamine can cause tachycardia as a side effect, but this does not indicate a therapeutic effect. An increased radial heart rate can also indicate other conditions, such as anxiety, fever, or dehydration.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because dopamine does not reduce cardiac output, but rather increases it by improving the pumping function of the heart.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because dopamine does not reduce urine output, but rather increases it by stimulating the renal blood vessels and enhancing renal perfusion.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: Contacting the provider for further orders is not necessary, because the client has type AB blood, which is compatible with any other blood type. The client can receive type B blood without any adverse reactions.
Choice B: Notifying the blood bank of the discrepancy is not required, because there is no discrepancy. The blood bank sent the correct type of blood for the client, according to their blood type.
Choice C: Administering the blood as ordered is the correct action, because type B blood is compatible with type AB blood. The client will not have any transfusion reactions or complications from receiving this type of blood.
Choice D: Completing an incident report is not appropriate, because there is no incident. The nurse did not make any error or mistake in administering the blood to the client. There is no need to document or report anything unusual.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is post-CABG and has high cholesterol is not in immediate danger, as atorvastatin is a long-term medication that lowers cholesterol and prevents cardiovascular complications.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has pneumonia and a slightly elevated WBC count is not in immediate danger, as piperacillin is an antibiotic that treats bacterial infections.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because a client who has renal failure and a high serum potassium level is in immediate danger, as sodium polystyrene sulfonate is an emergency medication that lowers potassium and prevents cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has anemia and a mild hemoglobin deficiency is not in immediate danger, as epoetin alfa is a long-term medication that stimulates red blood cell production and improves oxygen delivery.
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