A nurse in the ICU is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving a dobutamine drip. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?
Increased urine output
Decreased blood glucose level
Decreased blood pressure
Increased heart rate
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: Dobutamine is a positive inotropic agent that increases the contractility of the heart and improves cardiac output. This leads to increased renal perfusion and urine output, which reduces the fluid overload and edema associated with heart failure. Therefore, this choice is correct.
Choice B Reason: Dobutamine does not have a direct effect on blood glucose level. It may cause hyperglycemia as a side effect, but this is not an indication of its effectiveness. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Choice C Reason: Dobutamine may cause a slight decrease in blood pressure due to vasodilation, but this is not its main therapeutic effect. A significant decrease in blood pressure may indicate hypovolemia, hypotension, or shock, which are adverse effects of dobutamine. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Choice D Reason: Dobutamine also has a positive chronotropic effect, which means it increases the heart rate. However, this is not a desired outcome for a client with heart failure, as it increases the oxygen demand of the heart and may worsen the condition. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because a thrombotic stroke is caused by a clot that forms in a cerebral artery, usually due to atherosclerosis. It typically occurs gradually and does not cause a sudden, severe headache or seizure.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because an embolic stroke is caused by a clot that travels from another part of the body, such as the heart, to a cerebral artery. It usually occurs abruptly and does not cause vomiting or fever.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because a transient ischemic atack (TIA) is caused by a temporary interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain. It usually lasts less than an hour and does not cause permanent brain damage or loss of consciousness.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because a hemorrhagic stroke is caused by a rupture of a blood vessel in the brain, resulting in bleeding into the brain tissue or the subarachnoid space. It usually causes a sudden, severe headache, vomiting, seizure, and loss of consciousness. It can also cause elevated blood pressure, fever, and increased intracranial pressure.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is correct because respiratory acidosis is characterized by a low pH and a high PaCO2, indicating that the client has impaired ventilation and excess carbon dioxide in the blood.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a high pH and a low PaCO2, indicating that the client has increased ventilation and reduced carbon dioxide in the blood.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH and a low HCO3, indicating that the client has an excess of metabolic acids or a loss of base in the blood.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a high pH and a high HCO3, indicating that the client has an excess of base or a loss of metabolic acids in the blood.
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