A nurse is reviewing the PT, aPTT, and INR laboratory values for a client who is experiencing an acute episode of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse expect?
The laboratory values are within the expected reference range.
The laboratory values are prolonged.
The laboratory values are the same as the previous test values.
The laboratory values are decreased.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not within the expected reference range in a client who has DIC. DIC is a condition that causes abnormal activation of the clotting cascade, leading to widespread microthrombi formation and consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This results in bleeding complications and organ dysfunction.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because the laboratory values are prolonged in a client who has DIC. PT, aPTT, and INR are tests that measure the time it takes for blood to clot. PT measures the extrinsic pathway, aPTT measures the intrinsic pathway, and INR is a standardized ratio of PT. In DIC, these tests are prolonged because of the depletion of clotting factors and platelets.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not the same as the previous test values in a client who has DIC. DIC is an acute and dynamic condition that can change rapidly depending on the underlying cause and treatment. The laboratory values may fluctuate between normal, prolonged, or shortened depending on the balance between clotting and bleeding.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not decreased in a client who has DIC. Decreased laboratory values would indicate a shortened clotting time, which can occur in some cases of DIC when there is excessive clotting and thrombosis. However, this is not the typical finding in DIC, as most clients present with bleeding manifestations and prolonged clotting time.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because dextrose 5% in 0.9% sodium chloride is a hypertonic solution that can cause fluid overload and pulmonary edema in a client who has burns.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because dextrose 5% in water is a hypotonic solution that can cause fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space, resulting in hypovolemia and hypotension in a client who has burns.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because 0.9% sodium chloride is an isotonic solution that can cause hypernatremia and hyperchloremia in a client who has burns, as the fluid loss from burns is greater than the sodium loss.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because lactated Ringer's is an isotonic solution that contains electrolytes similar to plasma, such as sodium, potassium, calcium, and chloride. It also contains lactate, which is converted to bicarbonate in the liver and helps correct the metabolic acidosis that occurs in a client who has burns.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Dextran 70 is not a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who has a traumatic head injury and is exhibiting signs of increasing intracranial pressure. Dextran 70 is a plasma expander that increases the blood volume and viscosity, which can worsen the intracranial pressure by increasing the cerebral blood flow and edema.
Choice B Reason: Hydroxyethyl starch is not a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who has a traumatic head injury and is exhibiting signs of increasing intracranial pressure. Hydroxyethyl starch is another plasma expander that has similar effects as dextran 70, and can also increase the risk of coagulopathy and renal failure.
Choice C Reason: Albumin 25% is not a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who has a traumatic head injury and is exhibiting signs of increasing intracranial pressure. Albumin 25% is a colloid solution that increases the oncotic pressure and draws fluid from the interstitial space into the intravascular space, which can also worsen the intracranial pressure by increasing the cerebral blood flow and edema.
Choice D Reason: Mannitol 25% is a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who has a traumatic head injury and is exhibiting signs of increasing intracranial pressure. Mannitol 25% is an osmotic diuretic that reduces the intracranial pressure by creating an osmotic gradient and drawing fluid from the brain tissue into the blood vessels, which can then be excreted by the kidneys. The nurse should monitor the urine output, serum osmolality, and electrolytes when administering mannitol 25%.
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