A nurse is reviewing the PT, aPTT, and INR laboratory values for a client who is experiencing an acute episode of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse expect?
The laboratory values are within the expected reference range.
The laboratory values are prolonged.
The laboratory values are the same as the previous test values.
The laboratory values are decreased.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not within the expected reference range in a client who has DIC. DIC is a condition that causes abnormal activation of the clotting cascade, leading to widespread microthrombi formation and consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This results in bleeding complications and organ dysfunction.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because the laboratory values are prolonged in a client who has DIC. PT, aPTT, and INR are tests that measure the time it takes for blood to clot. PT measures the extrinsic pathway, aPTT measures the intrinsic pathway, and INR is a standardized ratio of PT. In DIC, these tests are prolonged because of the depletion of clotting factors and platelets.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not the same as the previous test values in a client who has DIC. DIC is an acute and dynamic condition that can change rapidly depending on the underlying cause and treatment. The laboratory values may fluctuate between normal, prolonged, or shortened depending on the balance between clotting and bleeding.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not decreased in a client who has DIC. Decreased laboratory values would indicate a shortened clotting time, which can occur in some cases of DIC when there is excessive clotting and thrombosis. However, this is not the typical finding in DIC, as most clients present with bleeding manifestations and prolonged clotting time.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Observing for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks from the evacuation site is important, but not the first action that the nurse should take. CSF leaks can indicate a breach in the dura mater, which can increase the risk of infection and meningitis. The nurse should inspect the dressing and the nose and ears for any clear or bloody drainage, and report any findings to the provider. However, these measures are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and perfusion.
Choice B Reason: Checking the oximeter is also important, but not the first action that the nurse should take. The oximeter measures the oxygen saturation of the blood, which reflects the adequacy of gas exchange in the lungs. The nurse should maintain the oxygen saturation above 90%, and administer supplemental oxygen as prescribed.
However, these measures are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and perfusion.
Choice C Reason: Assessing for an increase in temperature is another important action, but not the first one that the nurse should take. An increase in temperature can indicate an infection, inflammation, or damage to the hypothalamus, which can affect the thermoregulation of the body. The nurse should monitor the temperature and administer antipyretics as prescribed. However, these measures are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and perfusion.
Choice D Reason: Monitoring for manifestations of increased intracranial pressure is the first action that the nurse should take. Increased intracranial pressure can result from bleeding, swelling, or fluid accumulation in the brain, which can compress and damage brain tissue and blood vessels. The nurse should assess for signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure, such as headache, nausea, vomiting, altered level of consciousness, pupillary changes, or Cushing's triad (bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular respirations). The nurse should also intervene to prevent or reduce increased intracranial pressure, such as elevating the head of the bed, maintaining normothermia, and administering osmotic diuretics. Monitoring for manifestations of increased intracranial pressure is essential to prevent further brain injury and preserve neurological function.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because preparing for mechanical ventilation is not the priority nursing intervention, as it is an invasive and potentially harmful procedure that should be reserved for clients who have severe respiratory failure and cannot maintain adequate oxygenation with noninvasive methods.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because administering oxygen via face mask is the priority nursing intervention, as it is a noninvasive and effective way to improve oxygenation and reduce hypoxemia in a client who has low PaO2 and SaO2. Oxygen therapy can also decrease the workload of the heart and lungs and prevent further complications.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because preparing to administer a sedative is not the priority nursing intervention, as it may worsen the client's respiratory status and mask the signs and symptoms of hypoxemia. Sedatives should be used with caution and only after oxygenation has been optimized.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because assessing for indications of pulmonary embolism is not the priority nursing intervention, as it is a diagnostic rather than a therapeutic action. Pulmonary embolism is a possible cause of the client's condition, but it does not address the immediate problem of hypoxemia.
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