A nurse is reviewing the PT, aPTT, and INR laboratory values for a client who is experiencing an acute episode of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse expect?
The laboratory values are within the expected reference range.
The laboratory values are prolonged.
The laboratory values are the same as the previous test values.
The laboratory values are decreased.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not within the expected reference range in a client who has DIC. DIC is a condition that causes abnormal activation of the clotting cascade, leading to widespread microthrombi formation and consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This results in bleeding complications and organ dysfunction.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because the laboratory values are prolonged in a client who has DIC. PT, aPTT, and INR are tests that measure the time it takes for blood to clot. PT measures the extrinsic pathway, aPTT measures the intrinsic pathway, and INR is a standardized ratio of PT. In DIC, these tests are prolonged because of the depletion of clotting factors and platelets.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not the same as the previous test values in a client who has DIC. DIC is an acute and dynamic condition that can change rapidly depending on the underlying cause and treatment. The laboratory values may fluctuate between normal, prolonged, or shortened depending on the balance between clotting and bleeding.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not decreased in a client who has DIC. Decreased laboratory values would indicate a shortened clotting time, which can occur in some cases of DIC when there is excessive clotting and thrombosis. However, this is not the typical finding in DIC, as most clients present with bleeding manifestations and prolonged clotting time.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is correct because a client who is short of breath is in immediate danger, as it indicates a possible respiratory compromise or failure. The nurse should assess the client's oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, and lung sounds, and provide oxygen therapy as needed.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because a client who received oral pain medication 30 min ago is not in immediate danger, as it indicates that the client's pain has been managed and the medication has had time to take effect.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is scheduled for an abdominal x-ray and is awaiting transport is not in immediate danger, as it indicates that the client's condition is stable and the diagnostic test is not urgent.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has a prescription for discharge is not in immediate danger, as it indicates that the client's condition has improved and the client is ready to leave the hospital.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because monitoring the client's electrolyte levels is not the highest priority, as it does not address the immediate risk of airway obstruction or aspiration.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because suctioning saliva from the client's mouth is the highest priority, as it prevents airway obstruction and aspiration, which can lead to respiratory distress and infection.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because recording the client's intake and output is not the highest priority, as it does not address the immediate risk of airway obstruction or aspiration.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because performing passive range of motion on each extremity is not the highest priority, as it does not address the immediate risk of airway obstruction or aspiration.
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