A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which of the following clients first?
A client who is post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), has total cholesterol of 318 mg/dL, and is prescribed atorvastatin
A client who has pneumonia, a WBC count of 11,500/mm³, and is prescribed piperacillin
A client who has renal failure, a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L, and is prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate
A client who has anemia, hemoglobin of 11 g/dL, and is prescribed epoetin alfa
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is post-CABG and has high cholesterol is not in immediate danger, as atorvastatin is a long-term medication that lowers cholesterol and prevents cardiovascular complications.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has pneumonia and a slightly elevated WBC count is not in immediate danger, as piperacillin is an antibiotic that treats bacterial infections.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because a client who has renal failure and a high serum potassium level is in immediate danger, as sodium polystyrene sulfonate is an emergency medication that lowers potassium and prevents cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has anemia and a mild hemoglobin deficiency is not in immediate danger, as epoetin alfa is a long-term medication that stimulates red blood cell production and improves oxygen delivery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because cognitive impairment that decreases over several months post-injury is more likely to occur in a client who has a diffuse axonal injury, which is a widespread damage to the brain's white mater.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because neurologic deficits that increase up to 2 weeks post-injury are more likely to occur in a client who has a subdural hematoma, which is a collection of blood between the dura and the arachnoid membranes.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because a change in the level of consciousness that develops over 48 hr is more likely to occur in a client who has an intracerebral hematoma, which is a collection of blood within the brain tissue.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because a lucid period followed by an immediate loss of consciousness is a typical manifestation of an epidural hematoma, which is a collection of blood between the skull and the dura. The lucid period occurs when the initial bleeding stops and the client regains consciousness. The immediate loss of consciousness occurs when the bleeding resumes and causes increased intracranial pressure.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a high pH and a low PaCO2, indicating that the client is hyperventilating and losing too much carbon dioxide.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH and a low bicarbonate level, indicating that the client has an excess of metabolic acids or a loss of base.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a high pH and a high bicarbonate level, indicating that the client has an excess of base or a loss of metabolic acids.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because respiratory acidosis is characterized by a low pH and a high PaCO2, indicating that the client is hypoventilating and retaining too much carbon dioxide.
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