A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which of the following clients first?
A client who is post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), has total cholesterol of 318 mg/dL, and is prescribed atorvastatin
A client who has pneumonia, a WBC count of 11,500/mm³, and is prescribed piperacillin
A client who has renal failure, a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L, and is prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate
A client who has anemia, hemoglobin of 11 g/dL, and is prescribed epoetin alfa
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is post-CABG and has high cholesterol is not in immediate danger, as atorvastatin is a long-term medication that lowers cholesterol and prevents cardiovascular complications.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has pneumonia and a slightly elevated WBC count is not in immediate danger, as piperacillin is an antibiotic that treats bacterial infections.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because a client who has renal failure and a high serum potassium level is in immediate danger, as sodium polystyrene sulfonate is an emergency medication that lowers potassium and prevents cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has anemia and a mild hemoglobin deficiency is not in immediate danger, as epoetin alfa is a long-term medication that stimulates red blood cell production and improves oxygen delivery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: Drainage of clear fluid from the ears is not an expected finding for a client who has an epidural hematoma, but rather a sign of a basilar skull fracture, which is a different type of head injury. The clear fluid is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), which leaks from the brain through the fractured skull.
Choice B: Alternating periods of alertness and unconsciousness is an expected finding for a client who has an epidural hematoma, because it indicates a rapid increase in intracranial pressure (ICP) due to bleeding between the dura mater and the skull. The client may have a brief loss of consciousness at the time of injury, followed by a lucid interval, and then a rapid deterioration of mental status.
Choice C: Narrowing pulse pressure is not an expected finding for a client who has an epidural hematoma, but rather a sign of increased ICP due to any cause. Pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure. As ICP rises, it compresses the brainstem and causes bradycardia and hypertension, resulting in a decreased pulse pressure.
Choice D: Extensive bruising in the mastoid area is not an expected finding for a client who has an epidural hematoma, but rather a sign of a basilar skull fracture, which is a different type of head injury. The bruising is also known as Batle's sign, and it occurs due to blood pooling behind the ear.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is post-CABG and has high cholesterol is not in immediate danger, as atorvastatin is a long-term medication that lowers cholesterol and prevents cardiovascular complications.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has pneumonia and a slightly elevated WBC count is not in immediate danger, as piperacillin is an antibiotic that treats bacterial infections.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because a client who has renal failure and a high serum potassium level is in immediate danger, as sodium polystyrene sulfonate is an emergency medication that lowers potassium and prevents cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has anemia and a mild hemoglobin deficiency is not in immediate danger, as epoetin alfa is a long-term medication that stimulates red blood cell production and improves oxygen delivery.
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