A nurse is evaluating the central venous pressure (CVP) of a client who has sustained multiple traumas. Which of the following interpretations of a low CVP should the nurse make?
Fluid overload
Intracardiac shunt
Hypovolemia
Left ventricular failure
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because fluid overload is a condition of excess fluid volume in the body. A client who has fluid overload is more likely to have a high CVP, which indicates increased pressure in the right atrium and vena cava.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because an intracardiac shunt is a condition of abnormal blood flow between the chambers of the heart. A client who has an intracardiac shunt may have a normal or high CVP, depending on the direction and magnitude of the shunt.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because hypovolemia is a condition of low fluid volume in the body. A client who has hypovolemia is more likely to have a low CVP, which indicates decreased pressure in the right atrium and vena cava.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because left ventricular failure is a condition of impaired pumping function of the left ventricle. A client who has left ventricular failure may have a normal or high CVP, depending on the degree of backward failure and pulmonary congestion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is post-CABG and has high cholesterol is not in immediate danger, as atorvastatin is a long-term medication that lowers cholesterol and prevents cardiovascular complications.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has pneumonia and a slightly elevated WBC count is not in immediate danger, as piperacillin is an antibiotic that treats bacterial infections.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because a client who has renal failure and a high serum potassium level is in immediate danger, as sodium polystyrene sulfonate is an emergency medication that lowers potassium and prevents cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has anemia and a mild hemoglobin deficiency is not in immediate danger, as epoetin alfa is a long-term medication that stimulates red blood cell production and improves oxygen delivery.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not within the expected reference range in a client who has DIC. DIC is a condition that causes abnormal activation of the clotting cascade, leading to widespread microthrombi formation and consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This results in bleeding complications and organ dysfunction.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because the laboratory values are prolonged in a client who has DIC. PT, aPTT, and INR are tests that measure the time it takes for blood to clot. PT measures the extrinsic pathway, aPTT measures the intrinsic pathway, and INR is a standardized ratio of PT. In DIC, these tests are prolonged because of the depletion of clotting factors and platelets.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not the same as the previous test values in a client who has DIC. DIC is an acute and dynamic condition that can change rapidly depending on the underlying cause and treatment. The laboratory values may fluctuate between normal, prolonged, or shortened depending on the balance between clotting and bleeding.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not decreased in a client who has DIC. Decreased laboratory values would indicate a shortened clotting time, which can occur in some cases of DIC when there is excessive clotting and thrombosis. However, this is not the typical finding in DIC, as most clients present with bleeding manifestations and prolonged clotting time.
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