A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who had a myocardial infarction 3 hr ago. The nurse should expect which of the following laboratory values to be elevated?
Serum amylase
Unconjugated bilirubin
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST).
Troponin I
The Correct Answer is D
A. Serum amylase: Serum amylase is an enzyme associated with pancreatic function, and its elevation is not specific to myocardial infarction.
B. Unconjugated bilirubin: Elevation of unconjugated bilirubin is associated with liver function and hemolysis, not specifically with myocardial infarction.
C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): While AST may be elevated in conditions affecting the heart, it is not as specific or sensitive for myocardial infarction as troponin I.
D. Troponin I: This is the correct answer. Troponin I is a cardiac-specific biomarker released into the bloodstream when there is damage to cardiac muscle, such as during a myocardial infarction. Troponin I levels start to rise within 3-4 hours after the onset of myocardial infarction, making it a crucial marker for early detection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Remove the catheter: Removing the catheter may not be the immediate priority. The nurse should focus on preventing further air entry into the circulation and addressing the symptoms.
B. Replace the infusion system: While ensuring that the infusion system is intact is important, it is not the primary action needed to manage an air embolism.
C. Prepare for chest tube insertion: Chest tube insertion is not the primary intervention for an air embolism. The focus should be on preventing the progression of the embolism and providing supportive care.
D. Place the client on his left side in Trendelenburg position: This is the correct answer. Placing the client on the left side in Trendelenburg position is a maneuver used to trap air in the right atrium, preventing it from traveling to the pulmonary artery. The left side position helps to prevent the air from traveling to the right ventricle and into the pulmonary artery, reducing the risk of further complications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. RBC (Red Blood Cells): ITP primarily affects platelet levels, not red blood cells. Therefore, red blood cell counts are not typically decreased in ITP.
B. Platelets: This is the correct answer. ITP is characterized by a low platelet count due to immune-mediated destruction of platelets. A decreased platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding.
C. Granulocytes: While ITP primarily affects platelets, it does not have a direct impact on granulocyte counts. Granulocytes are a type of white blood cell.
D. WBC (White Blood Cells): ITP primarily affects platelets, not white blood cells. Therefore, white blood cell counts are not typically decreased in ITP.
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