The nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The nurse reviews the provider's orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?
Carvedilol
Captopril
Isosorbide dinitrate
Fluticasone
The Correct Answer is A
A. Carvedilol: Carvedilol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors. Beta-2 blockade can lead to bronchoconstriction, which can exacerbate asthma symptoms. Clarification is needed to see if a cardioselective beta-blocker (like metoprolol) would be safer.
B. Captopril: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used in heart failure to reduce blood pressure and decrease the workload on the heart. It does not have bronchoconstrictive effects and is safe for use in clients with asthma.
C. Isosorbide dinitrate: Isosorbide dinitrate is a nitrate used to manage heart failure by dilating blood vessels and reducing the workload of the heart. It has no effect on bronchial smooth muscle and is not contraindicated in asthma, so no clarification is needed.
D. Fluticasone: Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid used to manage asthma by reducing inflammation in the airways. It is beneficial in clients with asthma and does not pose a risk to clients with heart failure. There is no need to clarify this medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Wearing loose, non-constricting stockings: This instruction is not recommended for a client with DVT. Compression stockings, which are snug-fitting, may be prescribed to prevent DVT, but loose stockings would not provide the necessary compression.
B. Applying cool compresses to her legs: Cool compresses are not typically recommended for DVT. Warm compresses may be used to improve blood circulation, but cold compresses may not be suitable.
C. Taking an NSAID tablet daily: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are not typically recommended for individuals with DVT, especially when on anticoagulant therapy, as they may increase the risk of bleeding.
D. Flexing her knees and feet frequently: This is the correct answer. Encouraging the client to flex her knees and feet frequently helps promote blood circulation and reduces the risk of venous stasis, which can contribute to the formation of blood clots. It is a beneficial measure for clients with DVT.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. RBC (Red Blood Cells): ITP primarily affects platelet levels, not red blood cells. Therefore, red blood cell counts are not typically decreased in ITP.
B. Platelets: This is the correct answer. ITP is characterized by a low platelet count due to immune-mediated destruction of platelets. A decreased platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding.
C. Granulocytes: While ITP primarily affects platelets, it does not have a direct impact on granulocyte counts. Granulocytes are a type of white blood cell.
D. WBC (White Blood Cells): ITP primarily affects platelets, not white blood cells. Therefore, white blood cell counts are not typically decreased in ITP.
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