A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Hacking cough

Abdominal distension

Dependent edema

Jugular venous distention

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Hacking cough: This is the correct answer. Left-sided heart failure can lead to pulmonary congestion, resulting in a cough that is often described as "hacking" or "persistent." This cough may be worse at night when the client is lying down.

B. Abdominal distension: Abdominal distension is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, as fluid accumulates in the abdomen (ascites). In left-sided heart failure, fluid accumulates in the lungs, leading to pulmonary symptoms.

C. Dependent edema: Dependent edema is also more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure. In left-sided heart failure, fluid tends to accumulate in the lungs, causing pulmonary congestion and related symptoms.

D. Jugular venous distention: Jugular venous distention is often seen in right-sided heart failure due to impaired blood flow from the right atrium into the right ventricle. This finding is less likely to be prominent in left-sided heart failure.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. "DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage": This statement is not accurate. While heparin may be used in the treatment of DIC, it is not a lifelong therapy, and the approach to treatment depends on the underlying cause.

B. "DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen": This is the correct answer. DIC is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the clotting cascade, leading to the formation of microthrombi throughout the body. Abnormal coagulation involves the consumption of clotting factors, including fibrinogen.

C. "DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency": This statement is not accurate. DIC is not a genetic disorder, and it is not primarily related to vitamin K deficiency. It is an acquired condition often associated with severe infections, sepsis, trauma, or other critical illnesses.

D. "DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count": This statement is not accurate. In DIC, there is often a decrease in platelet count due to consumption and activation of platelets in the widespread formation of microthrombi.

A. Aortic regurgitation, B. Mitral stenosis C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral valve prolapse

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Aortic regurgitation: Aortic regurgitation typically presents with a diastolic murmur, not a systolic click.

B. Mitral stenosis: Mitral stenosis presents with a diastolic murmur, often associated with an opening snap, rather than a systolic click.

C. Aortic stenosis: Aortic stenosis typically presents with a systolic ejection murmur, but not a systolic click.

D. Mitral valve prolapse: This is the correct answer. Mitral valve prolapse (MVP) is characterized by the displacement of the mitral valve leaflets into the left atrium during systole, often producing a systolic click. Symptoms associated with MVP can include atypical chest pain, palpitations, and exercise intolerance.

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A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is teaching a client who has septic shock about the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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