A nurse is caring for a client who the provider suspects might have pernicious anemia. The nurse should expect the provider to prescribe which of the following diagnostic tests?
Schilling test
Haptoglobin
Sweat test
Antinuclear antibodies
The Correct Answer is A
A. Schilling test: This is the correct answer. The Schilling test is used to diagnose pernicious anemia, which is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency. The test measures the absorption of vitamin B12 in the gastrointestinal tract.
B. Haptoglobin: Haptoglobin is a test used to assess hemolysis and is not specific for pernicious anemia.
C. Sweat test: The sweat test is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis and is not relevant to the diagnosis of pernicious anemia.
D. Antinuclear antibodies: Antinuclear antibodies are tested to diagnose autoimmune disorders, such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and are not specific to pernicious anemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage": This statement is not accurate. While heparin may be used in the treatment of DIC, it is not a lifelong therapy, and the approach to treatment depends on the underlying cause.
B. "DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen": This is the correct answer. DIC is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the clotting cascade, leading to the formation of microthrombi throughout the body. Abnormal coagulation involves the consumption of clotting factors, including fibrinogen.
C. "DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency": This statement is not accurate. DIC is not a genetic disorder, and it is not primarily related to vitamin K deficiency. It is an acquired condition often associated with severe infections, sepsis, trauma, or other critical illnesses.
D. "DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count": This statement is not accurate. In DIC, there is often a decrease in platelet count due to consumption and activation of platelets in the widespread formation of microthrombi.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Correct answer: B
A. "I will take my diuretic before sleep and drink fluids during the day": This statement is not correct. Diuretics are usually taken in the morning to avoid disrupting sleep with increased urination at night. Additionally, fluid intake is generally restricted in congestive heart failure to manage fluid balance.
B. "I plan to slow down if I am tired the day after exercising":This statement reflects an understanding of the need to manage activity levels and recognize the signs of overexertion, which is crucial for clients with congestive heart failure. Pacing activities and allowing for adequate rest can help prevent exacerbations of heart failure symptoms.
C. "I will read food labels and limit my sodium to 4 grams per day": This is incorrect. Limiting sodium intake is a key component of heart failure management. The recommended sodium intake for individuals with heart failure is often much lower than 4 grams per day, typically around 2 grams or less.
D. "I should use naproxen to manage discomfort": Using nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like naproxen can contribute to fluid retention and worsen heart failure symptoms. This statement is not indicative of effective teaching.
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