A nurse is preparing to witness a client's signature on a consent form for a colon resection. The nurse should recognize that which of the following information should be provided to the client by the provider before signing the form? (Select all that apply.)
Potential complications
Cost of the procedure
Possible alternative treatments
Explanation of the procedure
Expected outcome of the procedure
Correct Answer : A,C,D,E
A. Potential complications. The provider is responsible for informing the client of possible risks and complications associated with the procedure. This ensures the client understands what to expect and can make an informed decision.
B. Cost of the procedure. While cost is an important consideration, it is not part of the informed consent process that the provider must explain. Financial discussions are typically handled by billing or administrative personnel.
C. Possible alternative treatments. Informed consent includes a discussion of reasonable alternatives so the client can weigh all available options. This allows for autonomous decision-making regarding their care.
D. Explanation of the procedure. The provider must describe the nature and details of the procedure, including what it involves and how it will be performed. This ensures the client understands what they are consenting to.
E. Expected outcome of the procedure. Clients should be informed of the anticipated results and benefits of the surgery. This helps set realistic expectations and supports informed decision-making.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Vital signs. The client has a significantly elevated heart rate (110/min) and elevated blood pressure (178/82 mm Hg), both of which can be associated with autonomic responses in dumping syndrome. The dizziness and desire to lie down after eating are also classic symptoms. These signs reflect the body’s reaction to rapid gastric emptying and fluid shifts.
B. Prescribed diet. While a bland, soft diet is generally safe post-gastrectomy, it may not prevent dumping syndrome unless it includes specific modifications like low carbohydrate intake and small, frequent meals. However, this option alone does not directly indicate dumping syndrome.
C. Skin appearance. The client is noted to be diaphoretic and pale, which are common symptoms of dumping syndrome due to the vasomotor response and hypoglycemia that can follow rapid gastric emptying.
D. Blood glucose level. The client's fasting blood glucose dropped to 65 mg/dL, which is below the normal range. Hypoglycemia is a hallmark of late dumping syndrome, resulting from excessive insulin release after rapid carbohydrate absorption in the small intestine.
E. WBC count. The WBC count is within normal range (9,000/mm³) and does not indicate dumping syndrome or an infectious process. It is not relevant in this context.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "Morphine 3.0 mg sub q every 4 hr PRN for pain." Including a trailing zero (3.0 mg) is considered unsafe and is discouraged in medication documentation. It increases the risk of a tenfold overdose if the decimal is missed.
B. "Morphine 3 mg subcutaneous every 4 hr PRN for pain." This entry uses the correct dosage format without a trailing zero, the full term "subcutaneous" instead of abbreviations, and proper medical terminology. It adheres to safe documentation practices as per The Joint Commission guidelines.
C. "Morphine 3 mg SC q 4 hr PRN for pain." The abbreviation “SC” is considered unsafe and prone to misinterpretation. Also, "q" for "every" is discouraged in clinical documentation due to potential misreading and error.
D. "Morphine 3 mg SQ every 4 hr PRN for pain." The abbreviation “SQ” can be misinterpreted or mistaken for “5 every” or other terms. Safe practice requires spelling out “subcutaneous” to prevent errors in medication administration.
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