A nurse is planning care for a client who has increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should understand that enteral nutrition should begin within 24 to 48 hr to help prevent which of the following complications?
Myocardial infarction
Bacterial translocation
Pulmonary embolus
Deep vein thrombosis
The Correct Answer is B
A. Myocardial infarction: Enteral nutrition initiation within 24 to 48 hours is not directly associated with preventing myocardial infarction. While proper nutrition is important for overall cardiovascular health, the timing of enteral nutrition initiation primarily focuses on preventing complications related to increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
B. Bacterial translocation: Initiating enteral nutrition within 24 to 48 hours in clients with increased intracranial pressure helps prevent complications such as bacterial translocation. Bacterial translocation refers to the passage of bacteria from the gastrointestinal tract into the bloodstream and systemic circulation. Delayed initiation of enteral nutrition can lead to intestinal mucosal breakdown and increased intestinal permeability, facilitating bacterial translocation. Early enteral nutrition helps maintain intestinal mucosal integrity, reduces gut bacterial overgrowth, and decreases the risk of bacterial translocation, thereby lowering the risk of infectious complications.
C. Pulmonary embolus: Initiating enteral nutrition within 24 to 48 hours is not directly associated with preventing pulmonary embolus. Pulmonary embolism is a complication characterized by the obstruction of pulmonary arteries by blood clots, typically originating from deep vein thrombosis. Prevention of pulmonary embolus involves measures such as early mobilization, pharmacological prophylaxis, and mechanical compression devices to prevent venous stasis and thrombus formation.
D. Deep vein thrombosis: Initiating enteral nutrition within 24 to 48 hours is not directly associated with preventing deep vein thrombosis. Deep vein thrombosis is a complication characterized by the formation of blood clots within deep veins, commonly in the lower extremities. Prevention of deep vein thrombosis involves measures such as early mobilization, pharmacological prophylaxis, and mechanical compression devices to prevent venous stasis and thrombus formation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): Elevated ESR indicates inflammation in the body and is not typically associated with the cause of atrial fibrillation.
B. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): This is the correct answer. A common cause of atrial fibrillation is hyperthyroidism, which is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland and often presents with elevated TSH levels. Thyroid hormones play a significant role in regulating heart rate and rhythm. Excess thyroid hormone can lead to increased heart rate and irregular heart rhythms, including atrial fibrillation.
C. Elevated brain natriuretic peptide (BNP): Elevated BNP levels are associated with heart failure and may indicate cardiac stress or dysfunction. While heart failure can predispose individuals to atrial fibrillation, elevated BNP levels themselves are not a direct cause of atrial fibrillation.
D. Elevated C-reactive protein (CRP): Elevated CRP levels indicate inflammation in the body and are associated with various cardiovascular diseases. While inflammation can contribute to atrial fibrillation, elevated CRP levels alone are not a direct cause of atrial fibrillation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "Vision changes occur when the retina begins to breakdown and collect bits of debris": This statement does not accurately describe the changes that occur in the eye during retinal detachment. Vision changes in retinal detachment primarily occur due to the separation of the retina from its underlying tissue layers, rather than the breakdown and collection of debris within the retina.
B. "Vision changes occur when retinal tissue pulls away from the blood vessels in the eye": Retinal detachment occurs when the retina, which is the light-sensitive layer at the back of the eye, pulls away from its normal position along the inner wall of the eye. This separation disrupts the blood supply to the retina, leading to vision changes. The most common symptom of retinal detachment is the sudden appearance of floaters or flashes of light in the visual field, followed by a shadow or curtain effect as the detachment progresses. Therefore, this statement accurately describes the pathophysiological mechanism underlying vision changes in retinal detachment.
C. "Vision changes occur when the cloudy lens alters the passage of light through the eye": This statement describes changes associated with cataracts, not retinal detachment. Cataracts involve clouding of the lens inside the eye, which can lead to vision changes such as blurriness or decreased visual acuity. However, cataracts are distinct from retinal detachment, which involves the separation of the retina from the inner wall of the eye.
D. "Vision changes occur suddenly due to complete obstruction of aqueous humor outflow": This statement describes the pathophysiology of acute angle-closure glaucoma, not retinal detachment. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is characterized by sudden elevation of intraocular pressure due to complete obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor, leading to rapid onset of symptoms such as severe eye pain, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Retinal detachment, on the other hand, is characterized by the separation of the retina from its normal position, resulting in distinct vision changes such as floaters, flashes of light, and visual field defects.
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