A nurse is providing care for a postoperative client. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as indicating the development of postoperative shock?

The client has metabolic alkalosis and warm extremities

The client develops bradycardia and bradypnea

The client has hypotension and is confused

The client has hypertension and anuria

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. The client has metabolic alkalosis and warm extremities: Metabolic alkalosis and warm extremities are not typically indicative of postoperative shock. Metabolic alkalosis may be caused by excessive vomiting or prolonged gastric suctioning, but it is not a hallmark sign of shock. Warm extremities may suggest adequate peripheral perfusion rather than impaired perfusion seen in shock.

B. The client develops bradycardia and bradypnea: Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and bradypnea (slow respiratory rate) may occur as compensatory mechanisms in certain types of shock, such as neurogenic shock. However, they are not specific indicators of postoperative shock. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and tachypnea (rapid respiratory rate) are more common findings in most types of shock, including postoperative shock.

C. The client has hypotension and is confused: Hypotension (low blood pressure) and confusion are classic signs of shock, including postoperative shock. Hypotension indicates inadequate perfusion of vital organs, while confusion may result from cerebral hypoperfusion. Altered mental status, such as confusion, is a significant neurological manifestation of shock.

D. The client has hypertension and anuria: Hypertension (high blood pressure) and anuria (decreased urine output) are not typical manifestations of postoperative shock. Hypertension may occur in certain conditions that can lead to shock, such as septic shock, during the compensatory phase. However, it is not a primary sign of shock. Anuria may occur in cases of severe hypovolemic shock but is not specific to postoperative shock.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. "Vision changes occur when blood vessels leak fluid or blood under a portion of the retina": This statement describes a symptom of diabetic retinopathy, not open-angle glaucoma. In open-angle glaucoma, vision changes primarily result from increased intraocular pressure (IOP) due to impaired drainage of aqueous humor, not leakage of fluid or blood under the retina.

B. "Vision changes occur when the cloudy lens alters the passage of light through the eye": This statement describes a symptom of cataracts, not open-angle glaucoma. Cataracts involve clouding of the lens inside the eye, which affects the passage of light and leads to visual disturbances. Open-angle glaucoma, however, primarily affects the optic nerve and visual field due to increased intraocular pressure.

C. "Vision changes occur when retinal tissue pulls away from the blood vessels in the eye": This statement describes a symptom of retinal detachment, not open-angle glaucoma. Retinal detachment occurs when the retina detaches from the underlying layers of the eye, leading to vision changes and potentially vision loss. Open-angle glaucoma, on the other hand, primarily involves increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage.

D. "Vision changes occur when pressure in the eye is increased due to a decrease of aqueous humor": This statement is accurate. In open-angle glaucoma, vision changes occur due to increased intraocular pressure resulting from inadequate drainage of aqueous humor from the eye. This increased pressure can lead to damage of the optic nerve, resulting in peripheral vision loss and potentially blindness if left untreated.

A. Synchronized electrical cardioversion B. Cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT) C. Heart catheterization with percutaneous intervention D. Echocardiogram

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Synchronized electrical cardioversion: Synchronized electrical cardioversion is a procedure used to restore normal sinus rhythm in patients with certain types of arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. However, it is not typically indicated for all patients with worsening heart failure and arrhythmias.

B. Cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT): CRT, also known as biventricular pacing, involves the placement of a specialized pacemaker device to improve the coordination of contractions between the heart's chambers. It is often used in patients with heart failure and arrhythmias to help regulate the rhythm and improve cardiac function.

C. Heart catheterization with percutaneous intervention: Heart catheterization with percutaneous intervention, such as angioplasty or stent placement, is used to treat coronary artery disease by opening narrowed or blocked blood vessels. While coronary artery disease may contribute to heart failure, this procedure specifically targets the coronary arteries rather than arrhythmias.

D. Echocardiogram : An echocardiogram is a diagnostic test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart's structure and function. While an echocardiogram may provide valuable information about the heart's condition in a patient with heart failure and arrhythmias, it is not a procedure used to regulate the rhythm directly.

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A nurse is providing care for a postoperative client. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as indicating the development of postoperative shock?

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