A nurse is caring for a client who has a subarachnoid hemorrhage and asks why they are having a CT angiography. Which of the following should the nurse understand about CT angiography?
A CT angiogram will reveal any edema within the brain tissue.
A CT angiogram will reveal any overproduction of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
A CT angiogram will reveal any fractures within the skull or spine.
A CT angiogram will reveal any decreased blood flow related to vasospasm.
The Correct Answer is D
A. A CT angiogram will reveal any edema within the brain tissue: CT angiography primarily focuses on visualizing blood vessels and blood flow within the brain. While it may incidentally detect areas of edema, its primary purpose is to assess vascular structures rather than brain tissue changes such as edema.
B. A CT angiogram will reveal any overproduction of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF): CT angiography does not assess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) production. Its main function is to visualize blood vessels and blood flow within the brain, particularly to detect abnormalities such as aneurysms, arteriovenous malformations, or vasospasm.
C. A CT angiogram will reveal any fractures within the skull or spine: CT angiography primarily focuses on imaging blood vessels and is not the preferred modality for detecting fractures within the skull or spine. CT scans or plain radiography are typically used to assess bony structures for fractures.
D. A CT angiogram will reveal any decreased blood flow related to vasospasm: This statement is correct. CT angiography is a specialized imaging technique that combines computed tomography (CT) scanning with contrast dye to visualize blood vessels and blood flow within the brain. It is commonly used to detect and monitor vasospasm, a potentially serious complication of subarachnoid hemorrhage, where blood vessels in the brain constrict, leading to decreased blood flow. CT angiography allows for the visualization of these changes in blood vessel diameter and blood flow dynamics.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Answer: A. Ensuring that the client and their family are kept informed about the client's care
Rationale:
A. Ensuring that the client and their family are kept informed about the client's care:
This action is the priority because communication is vital in managing a client with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). Keeping the client and their family informed can help them understand the seriousness of the condition, the plan of care, and potential outcomes. It also fosters trust and ensures that the family can make informed decisions regarding the client's care.
B. Being aware of the client's wishes regarding care:
While being aware of the client’s wishes is important, especially in critical conditions like MODS, the priority lies in ensuring ongoing communication about the client's current status and treatment. Understanding the client's wishes can guide care but should follow the immediate need for clear communication about the evolving situation.
C. Scheduling periods of rest for the client:
Rest is essential for recovery, particularly in clients with MODS, but scheduling rest periods is a part of implementing care rather than a primary action. It can be planned based on the client’s needs and condition but does not take precedence over ensuring that the family is informed.
D. Discussing the client's resting times with the family:
While involving the family in discussions about the client's care is beneficial, the immediate priority is to ensure they are fully informed about the overall condition and care plan. This discussion can occur after establishing a solid communication foundation regarding the client's status and care approach.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Atrial fibrillation: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm, absence of identifiable P waves, and irregular ventricular response. The heart rate in atrial fibrillation can be variable, and the absence of identifiable P waves indicates disorganized atrial electrical activity.
B. Sinus bradycardia: Sinus bradycardia is characterized by a regular rhythm with a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute (bpm) and normal P waves preceding each QRS complex. In sinus bradycardia, the PR interval and QRS duration are typically within normal limits.
C. Supraventricular tachycardia: Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is characterized by a regular rhythm with a heart rate greater than 100 bpm. SVT typically presents with narrow QRS complexes and may or may not have discernible P waves.
D. First-degree heart block: First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval (>0.20 seconds) but maintains a regular rhythm with normal QRS duration. In first-degree heart block, P waves are typically identifiable, and the rhythm is not irregular.
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