A nurse is caring for a client who has a subarachnoid hemorrhage and asks why they are having a CT angiography. Which of the following should the nurse understand about CT angiography?
A CT angiogram will reveal any edema within the brain tissue.
A CT angiogram will reveal any overproduction of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
A CT angiogram will reveal any fractures within the skull or spine.
A CT angiogram will reveal any decreased blood flow related to vasospasm.
The Correct Answer is D
A. A CT angiogram will reveal any edema within the brain tissue: CT angiography primarily focuses on visualizing blood vessels and blood flow within the brain. While it may incidentally detect areas of edema, its primary purpose is to assess vascular structures rather than brain tissue changes such as edema.
B. A CT angiogram will reveal any overproduction of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF): CT angiography does not assess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) production. Its main function is to visualize blood vessels and blood flow within the brain, particularly to detect abnormalities such as aneurysms, arteriovenous malformations, or vasospasm.
C. A CT angiogram will reveal any fractures within the skull or spine: CT angiography primarily focuses on imaging blood vessels and is not the preferred modality for detecting fractures within the skull or spine. CT scans or plain radiography are typically used to assess bony structures for fractures.
D. A CT angiogram will reveal any decreased blood flow related to vasospasm: This statement is correct. CT angiography is a specialized imaging technique that combines computed tomography (CT) scanning with contrast dye to visualize blood vessels and blood flow within the brain. It is commonly used to detect and monitor vasospasm, a potentially serious complication of subarachnoid hemorrhage, where blood vessels in the brain constrict, leading to decreased blood flow. CT angiography allows for the visualization of these changes in blood vessel diameter and blood flow dynamics.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administer acetaminophen by mouth for pain control: While pain management is important, it is not the priority intervention in this situation. Administering acetaminophen for pain control can be done after the client's condition has been assessed and any potential serious injuries, such as head trauma, have been addressed.
B. Perform a thorough health history: Obtaining a health history is essential for understanding the client's baseline health status and any pre-existing conditions that may affect their current condition. However, in the acute phase following a traumatic fall, the priority is to assess and manage any potential life-threatening injuries.
C. Prepare for a STAT non-contrast CT scan: This is the correct answer. In cases of traumatic falls, particularly when there is concern for head injury or intracranial bleeding, obtaining a non-contrast CT scan of the head is a priority. This imaging study helps identify any intracranial injuries such as hemorrhage or skull fractures, allowing for prompt intervention if necessary.
D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to monitor urine output: Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function, but it is not the priority intervention in the immediate aftermath of a traumatic fall. The focus initially should be on assessing and managing potential life-threatening injuries, particularly those related to head trauma.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A client transferred to the medical unit 1 hour ago, after staying 3 days in the ICU for severe blood pressure issues: This client is at the greatest risk for developing delirium due to several factors: recent transfer from the intensive care unit (ICU), history of severe blood pressure issues requiring ICU admission, and the potential for experiencing significant physiological and psychological stressors during the ICU stay. Patients who have been in the ICU are at increased risk for delirium due to factors such as sedative use, mechanical ventilation, and critical illness.
B. A client who has been on the medical unit for a week following a car accident and is waiting for transfer to a rehab facility when a bed becomes available: While this client may have experienced significant trauma from the car accident, they have been stable on the medical unit for a week, which reduces the immediate risk of developing delirium compared to the client recently transferred from the ICU. However, ongoing assessment and monitoring are still necessary.
C. A client who has been NPO for 3 hours, receiving IV fluids, and has not been prescribed any medications: While fasting and receiving IV fluids may contribute to dehydration, which can increase the risk of delirium, this client does not have the same level of acuity or recent history of critical illness as the client transferred from the ICU. Additionally, the absence of prescribed medications reduces the risk of medication-related delirium.
D. A client who is 4 days postoperative following knee surgery and scheduled for discharge home later this morning: This client is in the subacute phase of recovery and is scheduled for discharge home, indicating stability and reduced risk of developing delirium compared to the client recently transferred from the ICU. However, postoperative patients are still at risk for delirium, particularly in the immediate postoperative period, and should be monitored accordingly.
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