The nurse is assisting with planning care for a client who has a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Which of the following relates to a high mortality rate for a client who has an SAH?

Poor functional ability

Rebleeding of the injury

Decreased cerebrospinal fluid

Use of nimodipine

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Poor functional ability: While poor functional ability may impact the overall prognosis and quality of life for a client with a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), it is not directly associated with a high mortality rate. Functional ability can be improved with rehabilitation and supportive care.

B. Rebleeding of the injury: Rebleeding of the SAH is a significant risk factor associated with a high mortality rate. Rebleeding can lead to increased intracranial pressure, worsening neurological deficits, and even death. Preventing rebleeding is a critical aspect of managing SAH to improve outcomes.

C. Decreased cerebrospinal fluid: Decreased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) may indicate conditions such as hydrocephalus, which can complicate the management of SAH. However, it is not directly associated with a high mortality rate compared to rebleeding.

D. Use of nimodipine: Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used in the management of SAH to prevent cerebral vasospasm, which can lead to ischemia and worsen outcomes. While nimodipine plays a role in improving outcomes by preventing vasospasm, its use is not directly associated with mortality rates.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Dopamine: Dopamine is a catecholamine often used to increase blood pressure and cardiac output in hypotensive states. It does not directly reduce intracranial pressure (ICP).

B. Mannitol: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic commonly used to reduce intracranial pressure in clients with conditions such as subarachnoid hemorrhage, traumatic brain injury, or cerebral edema. It works by drawing fluid from brain tissue into the bloodstream, thereby reducing cerebral edema and ICP.

C. Nicardipine: Nicardipine is a calcium channel blocker used primarily to lower blood pressure in hypertensive emergencies. While it can indirectly impact intracranial pressure by reducing cerebral perfusion pressure, its primary mechanism of action is not targeted at reducing ICP.

D. Phenytoin: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication used to prevent and control seizures. While it may be indicated in clients who have experienced a subarachnoid hemorrhage to prevent seizures, it does not directly reduce intracranial pressure.

A. Myopia B. Vertigo C. Photophobia D. Presbycusis

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Myopia: Myopia refers to nearsightedness, which is caused by refractive errors in the eye and is not associated with Meniere's disease. Myopia results in difficulty seeing distant objects clearly.

B. Vertigo: Vertigo is a hallmark symptom of Meniere's disease and is caused by an excessive accumulation of endolymph fluid in the inner ear. Vertigo presents as a sensation of spinning or dizziness, often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and imbalance.

C. Photophobia: Photophobia refers to sensitivity to light, which can be associated with various eye conditions but is not a typical manifestation of Meniere's disease. Photophobia may occur in conditions such as migraine headaches or certain eye infections.

D. Presbycusis: Presbycusis refers to age-related hearing loss, which typically occurs gradually over time and is not directly associated with Meniere's disease. Meniere's disease is characterized by sudden episodes of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and a sensation of fullness or pressure in the ear.

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The nurse is assisting with planning care for a client who has a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Which of the following relates to a high mortality rate for a client who has an SAH?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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