A nurse is providing discharge education to a client who has valvular heart disease and peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching about valvular heart disease?
Comply with compression therapy.
Monitor wounds on lower extremities.
Take antiplatelet medications as ordered.
Monitor for gradual onset of symptoms
The Correct Answer is D
A. Comply with compression therapy: Compression therapy is commonly used in the management of peripheral vascular disease (PVD), not valvular heart disease. It involves applying external pressure to the limbs to improve circulation and reduce edema. While this intervention may be relevant for a client with PVD, it is not specific to valvular heart disease.
B. Monitor wounds on lower extremities: Monitoring wounds on lower extremities is important for clients with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) to assess for signs of poor wound healing, infection, or tissue ischemia. However, it is not directly related to valvular heart disease. Therefore, while wound monitoring may be appropriate for this client, it is not specific to valvular heart disease education.
C. Take antiplatelet medications as ordered: Antiplatelet medications, such as aspirin or clopidogrel, are commonly prescribed for clients with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) to reduce the risk of thrombotic events and improve blood flow. However, they are not typically indicated as a primary treatment for valvular heart disease. While some clients with valvular heart disease may have comorbidities that warrant antiplatelet therapy, it is not specific to valvular heart disease education.
D. Valvular heart disease involves dysfunction of one or more heart valves, leading to impaired blood flow within the heart. The nurse should educate the client on monitoring for the gradual onset of symptoms related to valvular heart disease. These symptoms may include dyspnea (shortness of breath), fatigue, palpitations, chest discomfort, and edema. Monitoring for these symptoms allows for early detection of disease progression or exacerbation, prompting timely intervention and management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Respiratory rate of 12/min: A respiratory rate of 12/min is within the normal adult range (12-20 breaths per minute). In the context of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), respiratory rate changes might be noted as part of the Cushing's reflex (which is characterized by bradycardia, hypertension, and abnormal respiratory patterns like Cheyne-Stokes or ataxic breathing), but a rate of 12/min on its own is not indicative of a worsening condition. However, if the patient begins to show signs of irregular or abnormal breathing patterns, this would raise concern.
B. Blood pressure of 108/74 mm Hg: This blood pressure is also within the normal range and does not suggest a worsening of intracranial pressure. In fact, ICP can lead to a rise in blood pressure (due to the body's compensatory mechanisms, known as Cushing's triad), along with bradycardia and abnormal respirations. Thus, a stable blood pressure like 108/74 mm Hg is not concerning in this context.
C. Changes to pupil size and shape: Changes in pupil size, shape, or reactivity are significant indicators of worsening intracranial pressure. Unequal pupils (anisocoria), sluggish or absent response to light, and fixed dilated pupils are signs of brainstem compression or damage, which often occur as ICP increases. This could indicate herniation or severe brain injury, which are worsening conditions.
D. Swelling of the optic nerve: Swelling of the optic nerve, or papilledema, is another important sign of increased intracranial pressure. It occurs due to increased pressure within the skull, which causes congestion and swelling of the optic disc. This finding can be seen on fundoscopy and indicates a worsening condition, as it suggests elevated pressure affecting the brain.
E. Decreasing Glasgow Coma scores: A decreasing Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is a critical indicator of worsening neurologic function in a patient with increased ICP. The GCS is used to assess a patient's level of consciousness, and a decreasing score suggests that the brain's function is deteriorating. This can be caused by worsening edema, brain herniation, or other severe neurological impairments associated with elevated ICP.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administer acetaminophen by mouth for pain control: While pain management is important, it is not the priority intervention in this situation. Administering acetaminophen for pain control can be done after the client's condition has been assessed and any potential serious injuries, such as head trauma, have been addressed.
B. Perform a thorough health history: Obtaining a health history is essential for understanding the client's baseline health status and any pre-existing conditions that may affect their current condition. However, in the acute phase following a traumatic fall, the priority is to assess and manage any potential life-threatening injuries.
C. Prepare for a STAT non-contrast CT scan: This is the correct answer. In cases of traumatic falls, particularly when there is concern for head injury or intracranial bleeding, obtaining a non-contrast CT scan of the head is a priority. This imaging study helps identify any intracranial injuries such as hemorrhage or skull fractures, allowing for prompt intervention if necessary.
D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to monitor urine output: Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function, but it is not the priority intervention in the immediate aftermath of a traumatic fall. The focus initially should be on assessing and managing potential life-threatening injuries, particularly those related to head trauma.
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