A nurse admits a client who has a subarachnoid hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer to decrease ICP?

Dopamine

Mannitol

Nicardipine

Phenytoin

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Dopamine: Dopamine is a catecholamine often used to increase blood pressure and cardiac output in hypotensive states. It does not directly reduce intracranial pressure (ICP).

B. Mannitol: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic commonly used to reduce intracranial pressure in clients with conditions such as subarachnoid hemorrhage, traumatic brain injury, or cerebral edema. It works by drawing fluid from brain tissue into the bloodstream, thereby reducing cerebral edema and ICP.

C. Nicardipine: Nicardipine is a calcium channel blocker used primarily to lower blood pressure in hypertensive emergencies. While it can indirectly impact intracranial pressure by reducing cerebral perfusion pressure, its primary mechanism of action is not targeted at reducing ICP.

D. Phenytoin: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication used to prevent and control seizures. While it may be indicated in clients who have experienced a subarachnoid hemorrhage to prevent seizures, it does not directly reduce intracranial pressure.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. Provide opportunities for education and continually evaluate the client's preferences and goals for care:
This is the most effective intervention. Providing education and involving the client (to the extent possible) in decision-making helps reduce anxiety and build trust. Even though individuals with Alzheimer's disease may have limited memory and cognitive abilities, ongoing communication about the transition and individualized care plans can help ease the process. Additionally, continuously evaluating the client's preferences and goals ensures that the care plan remains person-centered and aligns with their needs, helping to minimize relocation stress.

A. Female sex B. History of drug and alcohol use C. Lack of medical insurance D. History of lymphoma

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Female sex: While gender can influence the risk of certain health conditions, such as cardiovascular diseases, there isn't a direct correlation between being female and an increased risk of delirium. Both males and females can develop delirium under certain circumstances.

B. History of drug and alcohol use: A history of drug and alcohol use increases the risk for the development of delirium. Substance abuse, including alcohol, illicit drugs, and certain prescription medications, can disrupt neurotransmitter function and lead to alterations in mental status, including delirium. Additionally, withdrawal from alcohol or drugs can precipitate delirium in susceptible individuals.

C. Lack of medical insurance: While access to healthcare and socioeconomic factors can impact overall health outcomes, there isn't a direct association between lack of medical insurance and an increased risk of delirium. Delirium is more closely linked to medical conditions, substance use, and other physiological factors.

D. History of lymphoma: While certain medical conditions, such as infections, metabolic disturbances, and neurological disorders, can increase the risk of delirium, there isn't a direct correlation between a history of lymphoma and the development of delirium. Delirium is more commonly associated with acute illness, surgery, or medication use.

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A nurse admits a client who has a subarachnoid hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer to decrease ICP?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Explanation

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