A nurse admits a client who has a subarachnoid hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer to decrease ICP?
Dopamine
Mannitol
Nicardipine
Phenytoin
The Correct Answer is B
A. Dopamine: Dopamine is a catecholamine often used to increase blood pressure and cardiac output in hypotensive states. It does not directly reduce intracranial pressure (ICP).
B. Mannitol: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic commonly used to reduce intracranial pressure in clients with conditions such as subarachnoid hemorrhage, traumatic brain injury, or cerebral edema. It works by drawing fluid from brain tissue into the bloodstream, thereby reducing cerebral edema and ICP.
C. Nicardipine: Nicardipine is a calcium channel blocker used primarily to lower blood pressure in hypertensive emergencies. While it can indirectly impact intracranial pressure by reducing cerebral perfusion pressure, its primary mechanism of action is not targeted at reducing ICP.
D. Phenytoin: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication used to prevent and control seizures. While it may be indicated in clients who have experienced a subarachnoid hemorrhage to prevent seizures, it does not directly reduce intracranial pressure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A client transferred to the medical unit 1 hour ago, after staying 3 days in the ICU for severe blood pressure issues: This client is at the greatest risk for developing delirium due to several factors: recent transfer from the intensive care unit (ICU), history of severe blood pressure issues requiring ICU admission, and the potential for experiencing significant physiological and psychological stressors during the ICU stay. Patients who have been in the ICU are at increased risk for delirium due to factors such as sedative use, mechanical ventilation, and critical illness.
B. A client who has been on the medical unit for a week following a car accident and is waiting for transfer to a rehab facility when a bed becomes available: While this client may have experienced significant trauma from the car accident, they have been stable on the medical unit for a week, which reduces the immediate risk of developing delirium compared to the client recently transferred from the ICU. However, ongoing assessment and monitoring are still necessary.
C. A client who has been NPO for 3 hours, receiving IV fluids, and has not been prescribed any medications: While fasting and receiving IV fluids may contribute to dehydration, which can increase the risk of delirium, this client does not have the same level of acuity or recent history of critical illness as the client transferred from the ICU. Additionally, the absence of prescribed medications reduces the risk of medication-related delirium.
D. A client who is 4 days postoperative following knee surgery and scheduled for discharge home later this morning: This client is in the subacute phase of recovery and is scheduled for discharge home, indicating stability and reduced risk of developing delirium compared to the client recently transferred from the ICU. However, postoperative patients are still at risk for delirium, particularly in the immediate postoperative period, and should be monitored accordingly.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The aortic and mitral valves are the most commonly replaced valves: This statement is accurate. The aortic and mitral valves are indeed the most commonly replaced valves in cardiac valve replacement surgeries. Aortic valve replacement is commonly performed for conditions such as aortic stenosis or regurgitation, while mitral valve replacement is often indicated for mitral regurgitation or stenosis.
B. Mitral valve insufficiency occurs during the diastolic phase of the cardiac cycle: This statement is incorrect. Mitral valve insufficiency, also known as mitral regurgitation, occurs during the systolic phase of the cardiac cycle. It involves the backflow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium during ventricular systole, leading to volume overload of the left atrium and potentially causing symptoms such as dyspnea and fatigue.
C. Inadequate closure of the tricuspid valve causes overload in the left ventricle: This statement is incorrect. Inadequate closure of the tricuspid valve leads to regurgitation of blood from the right ventricle back into the right atrium during ventricular systole. This condition, known as tricuspid regurgitation, causes volume overload in the right atrium and ventricle, rather than overload in the left ventricle.
D. Aortic stenosis increases right ventricular systolic pressure and decreases afterload: This statement is partially correct. Aortic stenosis indeed increases left ventricular systolic pressure and decreases afterload, not right ventricular pressure. The increased afterload on the left ventricle can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy and eventually heart failure. However, aortic stenosis does not directly affect right ventricular systolic pressure.
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