A nurse is planning care for a client who has hypertrophic cardiomyopathy that has not improved after pharmacologic treatment. Which of the following procedures should the nurse anticipate the health care provider ordering?
Pericardiocentesis
Septal myectomy
Pericardial window
Synchronized electrical cardioversion
The Correct Answer is B
A. Pericardiocentesis: Pericardiocentesis is a procedure used to drain fluid from the pericardial sac, typically performed in cases of pericardial effusion or cardiac tamponade. It is not indicated for the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM), which involves structural abnormalities of the heart muscle rather than pericardial fluid accumulation.
B. Septal myectomy: Septal myectomy is a surgical procedure performed to treat hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM), a subtype of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy characterized by thickening of the interventricular septum and dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction. Septal myectomy involves the surgical removal of a portion of the hypertrophied septum to relieve left ventricular outflow tract obstruction and improve symptoms.
C. Pericardial window: A pericardial window is a surgical procedure used to create a communication between the pericardial sac and the pleural space, typically performed in cases of recurrent pericardial effusion or tamponade to prevent fluid re-accumulation. It is not indicated for the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
D. Synchronized electrical cardioversion: Synchronized electrical cardioversion is a procedure used to restore normal sinus rhythm in patients with certain types of cardiac arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. It is not typically indicated for the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, although patients with HCM may develop arrhythmias as a complication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "Vision changes occur when the retina begins to breakdown and collect bits of debris": This statement does not accurately describe the changes that occur in the eye during retinal detachment. Vision changes in retinal detachment primarily occur due to the separation of the retina from its underlying tissue layers, rather than the breakdown and collection of debris within the retina.
B. "Vision changes occur when retinal tissue pulls away from the blood vessels in the eye": Retinal detachment occurs when the retina, which is the light-sensitive layer at the back of the eye, pulls away from its normal position along the inner wall of the eye. This separation disrupts the blood supply to the retina, leading to vision changes. The most common symptom of retinal detachment is the sudden appearance of floaters or flashes of light in the visual field, followed by a shadow or curtain effect as the detachment progresses. Therefore, this statement accurately describes the pathophysiological mechanism underlying vision changes in retinal detachment.
C. "Vision changes occur when the cloudy lens alters the passage of light through the eye": This statement describes changes associated with cataracts, not retinal detachment. Cataracts involve clouding of the lens inside the eye, which can lead to vision changes such as blurriness or decreased visual acuity. However, cataracts are distinct from retinal detachment, which involves the separation of the retina from the inner wall of the eye.
D. "Vision changes occur suddenly due to complete obstruction of aqueous humor outflow": This statement describes the pathophysiology of acute angle-closure glaucoma, not retinal detachment. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is characterized by sudden elevation of intraocular pressure due to complete obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor, leading to rapid onset of symptoms such as severe eye pain, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Retinal detachment, on the other hand, is characterized by the separation of the retina from its normal position, resulting in distinct vision changes such as floaters, flashes of light, and visual field defects.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
A. In the community, the nurse should notify emergency services: In a community setting, such as outside the hospital or in a public area, it is essential to activate emergency medical services (EMS) by calling for help immediately when initiating CPR.
B. Compression rates and depths vary depending on the setting: Compression rates and depths for CPR follow standardized guidelines set by organizations such as the American Heart Association (AHA) and may not significantly differ between community and hospital settings. These guidelines typically recommend a compression rate of 100-120 compressions per minute and a compression depth of at least 2 inches (5 centimeters) for adults.
C. In the hospital, codes are addressed by an interprofessional team: In a hospital setting, cardiac arrest situations are typically addressed by an interprofessional team consisting of physicians, nurses, respiratory therapists, and other healthcare providers. This team-based approach allows for coordinated efforts in resuscitation, including advanced interventions such as airway management, medications, and defibrillation.
D. In the community, the nurse might use laypeople for assistance: In a community setting, especially if the nurse is providing CPR outside of a healthcare facility, there may be a need to involve laypeople or bystanders for assistance. Promptly recruiting bystanders to call for help, retrieve an AED if available, or assist with chest compressions can improve outcomes for the victim of cardiac arrest.
E. In the community, the use of automated external defibrillators (AEDs) requires the presence of a health care provider: In many community settings, including public places like shopping malls, airports, and schools, automated external defibrillators (AEDs) are available for use by laypeople or bystanders. While the presence of a healthcare provider is beneficial, AEDs are designed to provide audio and visual instructions for use by individuals without medical training, allowing for rapid defibrillation in cases of sudden cardiac arrest.
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