A nurse is planning care for a client who has atrial fibrillation and reports heart palpitations, lightheadedness, and shortness of breath. Which of the following procedures should the nurse anticipate for this client?
Pericardiocentesis
Septal myectomy
Pericardial window
Synchronized electrical cardioversion
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Pericardiocentesis is a procedure used to remove fluid from the pericardial sac and is not typically used to treat atrial fibrillation. It is more commonly indicated for conditions such as pericardial effusion or cardiac tamponade.
Choice B rationale
Septal myectomy is a surgical intervention to remove part of the thickened septal wall that separates the ventricles of the heart. It is primarily used to treat hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, not atrial fibrillation.
Choice C rationale
A pericardial window is a procedure that creates an opening in the pericardium to allow fluid to drain into the surrounding chest cavity. This procedure is not a treatment for atrial fibrillation.
Choice D rationale
Synchronized electrical cardioversion is a procedure where a controlled electric shock is delivered to the heart to restore a normal rhythm. It is a common and effective treatment for atrial fibrillation, especially when the condition is causing significant symptoms like palpitations, lightheadedness, and shortness of breath.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While family history can contribute to the risk of developing certain conditions, it is not a direct risk factor for peptic ulcer disease.
Choice B rationale
A long-term smoking history is a known risk factor for peptic ulcer disease as it can increase gastric acid secretion and reduce the production of substances that protect the stomach lining.
Choice C rationale
The client denies alcohol use; therefore, it is not a contributing risk factor in this case. However, alcohol use is generally a risk factor for PUD due to its irritating effect on the stomach lining.
Choice D rationale
Being positive for Helicobacter pylori is one of the strongest risk factors for peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium damages the protective mucosal layer of the stomach and duodenum, leading to chronic inflammation and allowing acid to injure the underlying tissue. It is the leading cause of most gastric and duodenal ulcers worldwide.
Choice E rationale
NSAID use is a well-established risk factor for peptic ulcer disease as these medications can disrupt the protective lining of the stomach, leading to ulcers.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A high calcium diet and hypercalcemia are not directly associated with pyelonephritis. While dietary habits and blood calcium levels can impact overall health, they do not typically contribute to the development of pyelonephritis.
Choice B rationale
Long-term use of ibuprofen can lead to kidney damage, which may increase the risk of pyelonephritis, especially if there is pre-existing kidney impairment. However, it is not as directly related to pyelonephritis as a history of UTIs.
Choice C rationale
A history of UTIs is relevant to pyelonephritis, as the infection can ascend from the lower urinary tract to the kidneys. Recurrent UTIs are a risk factor for pyelonephritis, making this the most likely report from the client.
Choice D rationale
Genetic diseases can have various impacts on health, but there is no common genetic disease that directly causes pyelonephritis. This choice is less likely to be relevant to the client's current condition.
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