A nurse is observing an assistive personnel (AP) transferring a client to a wheelchair. Which of the following actions by the AP indicates proper transfer technique?
Locks the wheelchair after transferring the client
Places the bed in a high position before transferring the client to the wheelchair
Uses a narrow stance when assisting the client to the wheelchair
Positions the wheelchair parallel to the client's bed
The Correct Answer is D
A. Locks the wheelchair after transferring the client: Locking the wheelchair should occur before the transfer to prevent it from rolling during the movement. Locking it after transferring compromises client safety and increases the risk of falls or injury.
B. Places the bed in a high position before transferring the client to the wheelchair: The bed should be placed in the lowest safe position to allow the client’s feet to touch the floor and to ease the transition to a lower surface like a wheelchair. A high bed position creates an unsafe height differential.
C. Uses a narrow stance when assisting the client to the wheelchair: A wide stance provides a stronger, more stable base of support, which is essential for safe body mechanics during a transfer. A narrow stance can lead to imbalance and injury to the AP or client.
D. Positions the wheelchair parallel to the client's bed: Positioning the wheelchair parallel or at a slight angle to the bed allows for easier and safer transfers. This minimizes turning and supports a smoother pivot, reducing strain on both the client and caregiver.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Close-up of eyes with yellow sclera: Could indicate jaundice or liver dysfunction, which is not an expected part of aging and requires further evaluation.
B. Older adult man with a rounded back and head tilted forward: Suggests kyphosis, which can occur with aging but is usually linked to osteoporosis or vertebral fractures, not considered an inevitable, expected change.
C. Close-up of nose with a reddish-purple spot (possible bruise): Might result from trauma, coagulopathy, or medication side effects like anticoagulants, not a routine age-related change.
D. Hands with prominent veins, thin skin, and wrinkles: Thinning skin due to decreased subcutaneous fat. Wrinkles from reduced skin elasticity. Prominent veins due to loss of skin turgor and connective tissue. These are all normal physical findings in older adults.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client is sedentary throughout most of the day: While physical inactivity can lead to health issues such as muscle weakness and cardiovascular problems, it is not immediately life-threatening and can be addressed through lifestyle interventions.
B. The client verbalizes regret about never marrying: This reflects emotional distress or social isolation, which is important, but it does not pose an urgent physical health risk requiring immediate attention.
C. The client has no living family: Although lacking family support can affect long-term care planning and emotional well-being, it is not the most immediate threat to the client’s health in this context.
D. The client has poorly fitting dentures: This is the priority because it directly affects the client’s ability to eat, leading to potential malnutrition, weight loss, and decline in overall health—issues particularly dangerous for older adults.
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