A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client to hospice care. The client's partner asks the nurse why the client is becoming verbally aggressive. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"We can discuss this after completing the admission process."
"Your partner is in the denial stage of grief."
"You should discuss this problem with your family members."
"Your partner is experiencing an expected response to the dying process."
The Correct Answer is D
A. "We can discuss this after completing the admission process." Delaying discussion about the client’s aggression may leave the partner feeling unheard and unsupported during an emotionally charged moment. Immediate acknowledgement is important to build trust and provide reassurance.
B. "Your partner is in the denial stage of grief." Verbal aggression is not typically linked to the denial stage of grief, which is more about avoidance or disbelief. Aggression is more often related to frustration, fear, or physiological changes at end of life.
C. "You should discuss this problem with your family members." Redirecting the partner to family members does not address their concerns directly and can seem dismissive. The nurse should provide direct support and clear information to help the partner understand the client’s behavior.
D. "Your partner is experiencing an expected response to the dying process." Verbal aggression can be a normal reaction to the stress, pain, or neurological changes associated with the dying process. Providing this explanation helps normalize the behavior, reducing anxiety for the partner and promoting understanding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"E"}
Explanation
Target 1: Paralytic ileus
- The client is 6 hours postoperative with hypoactive bowel sounds and no mention of flatus or stool. The use of IV opioids (morphine) increases the risk for reduced gastrointestinal motility. Paralytic ileus is common after abdominal surgery and with opioid use.
Target 2: Atelectasis
- The client has shallow bilateral breath sounds postoperatively, which indicates a risk for atelectasis, a common complication due to decreased mobility, pain limiting deep breathing, and effects of anesthesia.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices:
- Urinary tract infection: The client voided 350 mL of clear yellow urine after catheter removal with no signs of infection.
- Delayed wound healing: No signs of infection or poor wound healing; the dressing is dry and intact.
- Deep vein thrombosis: Though a risk postoperatively, the client is wearing SCDs and has even pedal pulses with no edema, lowering immediate concern.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Hyponatremia: Vomiting and diarrhea cause significant fluid loss, often leading to a decrease in sodium levels in the blood (hyponatremia) due to loss of electrolytes and dilution from fluid replacement or retained water.
B. Hyperkalemia: Vomiting and diarrhea usually cause potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia, as potassium is lost through gastrointestinal fluids.
C. Hypocalcemia: Calcium levels are generally not directly affected by vomiting and diarrhea, so hypocalcemia is less likely in this scenario.
D. Hypermagnesemia: Magnesium is typically lost with gastrointestinal losses; therefore, hypermagnesemia is uncommon with vomiting and diarrhea.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.