A nurse is evaluating the laboratory values of a client who is receiving epoetin alfa. Which of the following findings indicates a therapeutic response to the medication?
Increased haemoglobin level
Increased platelet count
Increased neutrophil count
Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason:
Increased haemoglobin is correct. level Epoetin alfa is a medication used to stimulate the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow, and it is often prescribed to treat anaemia. Anaemia is characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or a decrease in the amount of haemoglobin, which is responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood.
The therapeutic response to epoetin alfa is an increase in the haemoglobin level. This indicates that the medication is effectively stimulating the production of red blood cells, leading to an improvement in the client's anaemia and overall oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
Choice B reason:
Increased platelet count: Platelets are involved in blood clotting and are not directly affected by epoetin alfa.
Choice C reason:
Increased neutrophil count: Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell involved in the body's immune response. Epoetin alfa primarily affects red blood cells and does not directly impact white blood cell levels.
Choice D reason:
Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): ESR is a non-specific indicator of inflammation in the body and is not directly related to the therapeutic response of epoetin alfa in treating anaemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
"You should administer the medication at bedtime." This statement is incorrect option. Administering methylphenidate at bedtime is not appropriate because it is a stimulant medication, and taking it in the evening could interfere with the child's ability to fall asleep and disrupt their sleep pattern.
"Your child should avoid foods containing tyramine. “This statement is incorrect option. Tyramine is not a concern with methylphenidate. Tyramine is associated with certain antidepressant medications, such as MAO inhibitors. Methylphenidate is not a MAO inhibitor, so there is no need for the child to avoid tyramine-containing foods.
Option C: "You should administer the medication after breakfast." This is the correct option. Administering methylphenidate after breakfast is a common practice because it allows the child to benefit from the medication during school hours when improved attention and focus are needed the most.
"Your child should avoid excess sodium intake." This statement is an incorrect option. Excess sodium intake is not directly related to methylphenidate use. However, it is generally a good idea for anyone, including children, to have a balanced and healthy diet, which may include monitoring sodium intake. But it is not specifically tied to the administration of methylphenidate.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Correct. The nurse should initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension, which is a blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least 4 hr apart, or once with signs of end-organ damage. Severe gestational hypertension can lead to preeclampsia, which is a condition characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema, and can progress to eclampsia, which is a life-threatening complication that involves seizures.
B. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole, which is an abnormal growth of placental tissue that resembles grape-like clusters. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum, and elevated human chorionic gonadotropin levels, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
C. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding, which can have various causes such as placenta previa, placental abruption, or cervical trauma. Vaginal bleeding can indicate a potential hemorrhage, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
D. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcal culture, which means that the client has bacteria in their vagina or rectum that can cause infection in the newborn during delivery. A positive group B streptococcal culture requires antibiotic prophylaxis during labor, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
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