A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review prior to adjusting the client's heparin?
aPTT
PT
INR
WBC count
The Correct Answer is A
A is correct because aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy and guides dosage adjustments.
B is incorrect because PT (prothrombin time) measures the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, not heparin.
C is incorrect because INR (international normalized ratio) is a standardized version of PT that also monitors warfarin therapy, not heparin.
D is incorrect because WBC count (white blood cell count) measures the body's immune response and has no relation to heparin therapy.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Allow the client's partner to translate. While the partner may be well-intentioned, using a family member or friend as an ad-hoc interpreter can compromise the confidentiality of the information and may not accurately convey the client's medical concerns.
Choice B reason:
Have the client's child translate. Relying on a child to translate sensitive medical information is inappropriate, as it may burden the child and may lead to potential misunderstandings or omissions in communication.
Choice C reason:
Ask a nursing student who speaks the same language as the client to translate. Although a nursing student who speaks the same language as the client may be able to assist, using a professional interpreter is the preferred option. Professional interpreters have specific training in medical terminology and communication, ensuring the most accurate and effective exchange of information.
Choice D reason:
Using a professional interpreter is essential in situations where the healthcare provider and the client do not speak the same language. It ensures accurate communication, maintains confidentiality, and prevents misunderstandings. In this scenario, the nurse should request an interpreter who is proficient in the client's language to assist with the admission process.
Correct Answer is ["18"]
Explanation
The client weighs 198 lb, which is equivalent to (198 ÷ 2.2 = 90kg.
Therefore, the amount of mannitol for the test dose is 0.2 g/kg x 90 kg = 18 g.
The nurse should administer 18 g of mannitol IV bolus over 5 min as a test dose to the client who has severe oliguria.
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