A nurse is counseling a client who had a vasectomy 6 weeks ago and wants to know if he is sterile yet.
Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
“You need to have a sperm count test to confirm your sterility.”.
“You need to wait for at least 20 more ejaculations before you are sterile.”.
“You need to use another form of contraception for at least 3 more months.”.
“You need to have a repeat vasectomy to ensure your sterility.”.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. “You need to have a sperm count test to confirm your sterility.”
A sperm count test is a semen analysis that measures the number of sperm in the ejaculate.
It is the only way to verify that a vasectomy has been successful and that the man is sterile. A man is considered sterile when his sperm count is zero or below 100,000 non-motile sperm per sample.
Choice B is wrong because the number of ejaculations does not guarantee sterility. Some sperm may still be present in the severed vas deferens for months after a vasectomy.
Choice C is wrong because the duration of contraception use after a vasectomy depends on the sperm count test results, not on a fixed time period. It may take more or less than 3 months for a man to become sterile after a vasectomy.
Choice D is wrong because a repeat vasectomy is unnecessary and ineffective to ensure sterility. A vasectomy is a permanent birth control method that rarely fails or reverses.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. The client has a positive pregnancy test result.
This is a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation because the procedure is a permanent form of contraception and should not be performed on a pregnant woman.
The client should be counseled about other options for birth control or termination of pregnancy.
Choice A is wrong because a history of pelvic inflammatory disease is not a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation.It may increase the risk of complications from the surgery, such as infection or adhesions, but it does not prevent the procedure from being performed.
Choice C is wrong because a family history of breast cancer is not a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation.It may affect the client’s decision to undergo the procedure, as some studies have suggested that tubal ligation may reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, which is associated with breast cancer.
However, this is not a medical reason to avoid the surgery.
Choice D is wrong because a history of endometriosis is not a contraindication for bilateral tubal ligation.
It may cause pelvic pain or infertility, but it does not affect the effectiveness or safety of the procedure.In fact, some studies have shown that tubal ligation may improve the symptoms of endometriosis by reducing retrograde menstruation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. OCs can decrease menstrual blood loss and cramps.This is because OCs prevent ovulation and thin the lining of the uterus, which reduces the amount of bleeding and cramping during menstruation.
Choice A is wrong because OCs do not provide protection against STIs.The only contraceptive methods that can prevent STIs are barrier methods, such as condoms.
Choice B is wrong because OCs can have variable effects on libido and sexual satisfaction.
Some women may experience an increase, while others may experience a decrease or no change at all.This depends on individual factors, such as hormone levels, mood, and relationship quality.
Choice D is wrong because OCs can also have variable effects on mood and depression.
Some women may experience an improvement, while others may experience a worsening or no change at all.This also depends on individual factors, such as hormone sensitivity, stress, and history of mental health problems.
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