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A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of spermicide.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of some spermicides that contain nonoxynol-9 (N-9)?

A.

Vaginal dryness

B.

Increased risk of bacterial vaginosis

C.

Increased risk of HIV transmission

D.

Increased risk of cervical cancer

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

The correct answer is choice C. Increased risk of HIV transmission. According to some sources, spermicide that contains nonoxynol-9 (N-9) can irritate sensitive genital tissues, especially if used several times a day.

This irritation can increase the risk of HIV and other sexually transmitted infections by giving infections an easy pathway into the body.

Choice A is wrong because vaginal dryness is not a common side effect of spermicide.

Choice B is wrong because bacterial vaginosis is not directly linked to spermicide use.

Choice D is wrong because cervical cancer is not caused by spermicide use.

Spermicide is a type of contraceptive that works by stopping sperm from reaching an egg.

It comes in different forms such as gels, creams, foams, films or suppositories. It needs to be inserted into the vagina before sex and used correctly every time for it to be effective.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The correct answer is choice C. The patient needs further teaching if they think that the implant can be inserted immediately after childbirth.According to Mayo Clinic, the implant should not be inserted until at least 21 days after giving birth, or until the milk supply is well established if breastfeeding.

Inserting the implant too soon may increase the risk of blood clots or decrease milk production.

Choice A is correct because condoms are still needed to protect against STIs, even if using the implant as a birth control method.Choice B is correct because irregular and unpredictable menstruation is a common side effect of the implant.Choice D is correct because the implant can prevent pregnancy for up to three years.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B.History of uterine prolapse is a contraindication for the use of a diaphragm as a contraceptive method.Uterine prolapse is a condition where the uterus descends into the vagina, which can interfere with the proper placement and seal of the diaphragm.

Choice A is wrong because history of cervical cancer is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.

Cervical cancer is a malignant tumor of the cervix, which can be treated with surgery, radiation, or chemotherapy.

Diaphragm use does not affect the risk or treatment of cervical cancer.

Choice C is wrong because history of ovarian cysts is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.

Ovarian cysts are fluid-filled sacs that develop in or on the ovaries, which can cause pain, bloating, or irregular periods.

Diaphragm use does not affect the formation or rupture of ovarian cysts.

Choice D is wrong because history of menopause is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.

Menopause is the natural cessation of menstrual cycles and fertility, which occurs around age 50 in most women.

Diaphragm use does not affect the hormonal changes or symptoms of menopause.

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