A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of spermicide.
Which of the following is an adverse effect of some spermicides that contain nonoxynol-9 (N-9)?
Vaginal dryness
Increased risk of bacterial vaginosis
Increased risk of HIV transmission
Increased risk of cervical cancer
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. Increased risk of HIV transmission. According to some sources, spermicide that contains nonoxynol-9 (N-9) can irritate sensitive genital tissues, especially if used several times a day.
This irritation can increase the risk of HIV and other sexually transmitted infections by giving infections an easy pathway into the body.
Choice A is wrong because vaginal dryness is not a common side effect of spermicide.
Choice B is wrong because bacterial vaginosis is not directly linked to spermicide use.
Choice D is wrong because cervical cancer is not caused by spermicide use.
Spermicide is a type of contraceptive that works by stopping sperm from reaching an egg.
It comes in different forms such as gels, creams, foams, films or suppositories. It needs to be inserted into the vagina before sex and used correctly every time for it to be effective.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Refer the client to a provider for evaluation.Lower abdominal pain and fever for 2 days can indicate a serious complication of IUD use, such as pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) or perforation of the uterus.
These conditions require prompt medical attention and possible removal of the IUD.
Choice A is wrong because ibuprofen may not be enough to relieve the pain and may mask the signs of infection.
Choice B is wrong because avoiding sexual intercourse will not treat the underlying cause of the symptoms and may delay seeking medical help.
Choice C is wrong because a urine specimen may not be sufficient to diagnose the problem and may miss other possible causes of lower abdominal pain and fever, such as ectopic pregnancy or appendicitis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B.History of uterine prolapse is a contraindication for the use of a diaphragm as a contraceptive method.Uterine prolapse is a condition where the uterus descends into the vagina, which can interfere with the proper placement and seal of the diaphragm.
Choice A is wrong because history of cervical cancer is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.
Cervical cancer is a malignant tumor of the cervix, which can be treated with surgery, radiation, or chemotherapy.
Diaphragm use does not affect the risk or treatment of cervical cancer.
Choice C is wrong because history of ovarian cysts is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.
Ovarian cysts are fluid-filled sacs that develop in or on the ovaries, which can cause pain, bloating, or irregular periods.
Diaphragm use does not affect the formation or rupture of ovarian cysts.
Choice D is wrong because history of menopause is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.
Menopause is the natural cessation of menstrual cycles and fertility, which occurs around age 50 in most women.
Diaphragm use does not affect the hormonal changes or symptoms of menopause.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.