A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and reports a headache.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Click on the "Exhibit" button for additional information about the client. There are three tabs that contain separate categories of data.)
Graphic Results Temperature 37° C (98.6° F) Heart rate 88/min Respiratory rate 18/min
Blood pressure 144/94 mm Hg
Upper abdominal pain rating 4/10 on a scale from 0 to 10
Perform a contraction stress test.
Prepare for delivery of the fetus.
Increase the client's dietary salt intake to 2 g/day.
Administer ferrous sulfate to the client.
Upper abdominal pain rating 4/10 on a scale from 0 to 10
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
A contraction stress test is not appropriate in this context and would not address the potential risks associated with the client's symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
The elevated blood pressure and upper abdominal pain suggest potential preeclampsia, a serious complication of pregnancy that can lead to significant maternal and fetal risks. Delivery may be indicated to prevent further complications.
Choice C rationale:
Increasing dietary salt intake is not recommended for managing elevated blood pressure in pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Administering ferrous sulfate is unrelated to the client's symptoms and concerns.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
High-impact exercises might not be suitable for all clients and could potentially exacerbate symptoms such as joint pain or discomfort.
Choice B rationale:
Menopause is confirmed after 12 consecutive months without a menstrual period. Until this point, there is still a risk of pregnancy, and contraceptive measures should be used.
Choice C rationale:
Pelvic muscle exercises (Kegel exercises) are important for strengthening pelvic floor muscles but are not specifically related to menopause.
Choice D rationale:
Using a water-based lubricant for painful vaginal intercourse is a helpful suggestion, but it is not the primary focus of menopause education.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Following hypospadias repair, a urinary catheter is often placed to ensure proper healing. The duration of catheterization varies, but about 1 week is a common timeframe.
Choice B rationale:
Clamping the catheter tubing for extended periods is not a standard practice and can cause discomfort and complications.
Choice C rationale:
Applying antifungal ointment is not typically required after hypospadias repair.
Choice D rationale:
A prophylactic antibiotic is not typically prescribed for 6 weeks following hypospadias repair.
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