A nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is experiencing a postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should expect the provider to prescribe which of the following medications?
Methylergonovine
Carboprost
Nifedipine
Oxytocin
The Correct Answer is D
A. Methylergonovine: While effective for postpartum hemorrhage, it causes vasoconstriction and can raise blood pressure significantly. It is contraindicated in clients with preeclampsia or hypertension due to the risk of stroke or hypertensive crisis.
B. Carboprost: Carboprost is used to treat postpartum hemorrhage, but it may increase blood pressure and is used cautiously in clients with preeclampsia. It is not typically the first-line treatment in hypertensive patients.
C. Nifedipine: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension and preterm labor, not for controlling postpartum bleeding. It does not cause uterine contraction and is not effective for hemorrhage.
D. Oxytocin: Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions and is the first-line medication for managing postpartum hemorrhage. It does not raise blood pressure, making it safe and effective for clients with preeclampsia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Apply a tourniquet below the venipuncture site: The tourniquet should be applied above the venipuncture site to engorge the vein and make it more visible and easier to access.
B. Choose a vein that is palpable and straight: A vein that is palpable, straight, and firm provides the best chance of successful IV insertion and reduces the risk of complications like infiltration or phlebitis.
C. Elevate the client's arm prior to insertion: Elevating the arm can actually reduce venous filling and make vein access more difficult. Instead, the arm should be in a dependent position to promote vein distention.
D. Select a site on the client's dominant arm: The non-dominant arm is generally preferred for IV insertion to minimize interference with daily activities and reduce discomfort.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Coarse lung sounds: These are indicative of secretions in the larger airways and may suggest fluid overload or pulmonary complications but are not specific to cardiac tamponade and are considered a later or unrelated finding in this context.
B. Decreased jugular vein distention: Accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac compresses the heart and impairs its ability to fill typically causing increased jugular venous pressure, so a decrease would not be expected and does not indicate early tamponade.
C. Widening pulse pressure: Narrowing, not widening, of the pulse pressure is more characteristic of cardiac tamponade due to decreased stroke volume and rising intrapericardial pressure.
D. Muffled heart sounds: This is a classic early sign of cardiac tamponade caused by fluid accumulation in the pericardial sac, which dampens the sound of the heart during auscultation. This is one of the key components of Beck's triad, along with hypotension and elevated jugular venous pressure.
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