A nurse is teaching a client about family planning using the basal body temperature method.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
"Take your temperature within 30 minutes after your first morning void."
"Take your temperature 1 hour after getting out of bed."
"Take your temperature every night before going to bed."
"Take your temperature immediately after waking and before getting out of bed." .
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Taking temperature within 30 minutes after the first morning void is specific to ovulation prediction kits, not the basal body temperature method.
Choice B rationale:
Taking temperature 1 hour after getting out of bed is not accurate for tracking basal body temperature fluctuations related to the menstrual cycle.
Choice C rationale:
Taking temperature every night before going to bed does not provide consistent basal body temperature readings, as the body temperature needs to be taken at the same time every morning to detect subtle changes related to the menstrual cycle.
Choice D rationale:
This is the correct answer. To use the basal body temperature method effectively, the client should take their temperature immediately after waking and before getting out of bed every morning. This helps in detecting the slight rise in basal body temperature that occurs after ovulation, indicating the fertile period.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Diazepam (Valium) is not the correct choice in this situation. Diazepam is a sedative and muscle relaxant but would not address the respiratory depression caused by hydromorphone. The client's respiratory rate of 10/min indicates a potential opioid overdose, and the appropriate intervention is to administer naloxone to reverse the opioid effects.
Choice B rationale:
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is not the correct choice in this scenario. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever and fever reducer but would not address the respiratory depression caused by hydromorphone. The priority is to address the respiratory depression promptly with naloxone.
Choice C rationale:
Ibuprofen (Advil) is not the correct choice in this situation. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for pain and inflammation but is not appropriate for reversing opioid-induced respiratory depression. Naloxone is the drug of choice to reverse opioid overdose in this case.
Choice D rationale:
Naloxone (Narcan) is the correct choice. Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression. Given the client's low respiratory rate, naloxone should be administered promptly to counteract the effects of hydromorphone. This is the most appropriate and potentially life-saving intervention for this client.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
"Uneven shoulder and pelvic heights." This is the correct answer. Uneven shoulder and pelvic heights, along with an asymmetrical appearance of the spine when viewed from the back, are clinical manifestations of scoliosis. Scoliosis is a sideways curvature of the spine that often develops during the growth spurt before puberty. Screening for scoliosis typically involves assessing the alignment of the spine and looking for these asymmetries.
Choice B rationale:
Exaggerated curvature of the sacrum is not a typical sign of scoliosis. Scoliosis primarily affects the upper back and can cause a side-to-side curvature of the spine, not the sacrum.
Choice C rationale:
Limited range-of-motion of the hips is not a specific indicator of scoliosis. Restricted hip movement might suggest other musculoskeletal issues but is not directly related to scoliosis.
Choice D rationale:
Mild pain in the hip region is not a characteristic symptom of scoliosis. While scoliosis can cause discomfort, it typically manifests as back pain, not specifically in the hip region. Pain symptoms can vary widely among individuals and might not be present in all cases of scoliosis.
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