A nurse is teaching a client about family planning using the basal body temperature method.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
"Take your temperature within 30 minutes after your first morning void."
"Take your temperature 1 hour after getting out of bed."
"Take your temperature every night before going to bed."
"Take your temperature immediately after waking and before getting out of bed." .
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Taking temperature within 30 minutes after the first morning void is specific to ovulation prediction kits, not the basal body temperature method.
Choice B rationale:
Taking temperature 1 hour after getting out of bed is not accurate for tracking basal body temperature fluctuations related to the menstrual cycle.
Choice C rationale:
Taking temperature every night before going to bed does not provide consistent basal body temperature readings, as the body temperature needs to be taken at the same time every morning to detect subtle changes related to the menstrual cycle.
Choice D rationale:
This is the correct answer. To use the basal body temperature method effectively, the client should take their temperature immediately after waking and before getting out of bed every morning. This helps in detecting the slight rise in basal body temperature that occurs after ovulation, indicating the fertile period.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Upper extremity hypotension is not a common finding in coarctation of the aorta. Coarctation of the aorta typically results in narrowing of the aorta, leading to decreased blood flow to the lower part of the body. This can cause weak or absent femoral pulses and lower extremity hypotension, not upper extremity hypotension.
Choice B rationale:
Frequent nosebleeds are not directly associated with coarctation of the aorta. The symptoms of coarctation of the aorta are primarily related to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities, leading to symptoms such as weak femoral pulses, lower extremity hypotension, and leg cramping or pain.
Choice D rationale:
Increased intracranial pressure is not a typical finding in coarctation of the aorta. Coarctation of the aorta affects blood flow to the lower part of the body and does not directly impact intracranial pressure.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice a. Maternal hypoglycemia.
Choice A rationale:
Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased glucose availability for the fetus, which can result in fetal bradycardia due to reduced energy supply.
Choice B rationale:
Fetal anemia typically causes fetal tachycardia rather than bradycardia, as the fetus compensates for the lack of oxygen-carrying capacity by increasing the heart rate.
Choice C rationale:
Chorioamnionitis, an infection of the fetal membranes, usually causes fetal tachycardia due to the inflammatory response and fever.
Choice D rationale:
Maternal fever is more likely to cause fetal tachycardia rather than bradycardia, as the increased maternal temperature can lead to an increased fetal heart rate.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.