A nurse is caring for a newborn.
Vital Signs.
0640:. Temperature 36.7°C (98.1° F) axillary.
Heart rate 154/min.
Respiratory rate 68/min.
BP 72/48 mm Hg. 0650:. Heart rate 156/min.
Respiratory rate 72/min.
0700:. Temperature 37° C (98.6° F) axillary.
Heart rate 156/min.
Respiratory rate 76/min.
Admission Assessment.
0630:. Newborn delivered via cesarean birth under spinal anesthesia at. 0630.
Amniotic fluid clear.
0631:. 1-min Apgar score 7. 0636:. 5-min Apgar score 9. Newborn transferred to nursery.
Nurses' Notes.
0640:. Weight 4200 gm (9 Ib 4 oz), head circumference 35.5 cm (14 in). Respiratory rate 68/min, with mild grunting.
0650:. Respiratory rate 72/min, with mild grunting.
0700:. Respiratory rate 76/min, with moderate grunting and mild.
intercostal retractions.
Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following.
sentence.
The client is at risk for developing Target 1 and Target 2.
Hypoglycemia.
Bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
Transient tachypnea of the newborn.
Tachycardia.
The Correct Answer is C
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Spotting is a common finding in placenta previa. It occurs due to the abnormal implantation of the placenta over or near the cervical os, leading to vaginal bleeding. This bleeding can range from mild spotting to severe hemorrhage and is a significant sign of placenta previa.
Choice B rationale:
Nausea is not a specific sign of placenta previa. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms during early pregnancy but are not directly related to placenta previa.
Choice C rationale:
A board-like abdomen is a sign of peritonitis or an acute abdomen, which is not associated with placenta previa. This finding suggests intra-abdominal inflammation and is unrelated to the condition in question.
Choice D rationale:
Delayed menses is a common sign of pregnancy, but it does not specifically indicate placenta previa. Placenta previa is characterized by vaginal bleeding, which is not synonymous with a delay in menstrual periods.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice B: "When using implanted contraceptive methods, condoms should also be used to protect against STDs."
Choice B rationale: While implanted contraceptive methods are highly effective in preventing unintended pregnancies, they do not provide protection against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Therefore, using condoms in conjunction with implanted contraceptives can enhance overall sexual health by reducing the risk of contracting or transmitting STDs. This statement highlights the nurse's understanding of the importance of comprehensive sexual health practices and the limitations of various contraceptive methods.
Choice A rationale: The use of petroleum-based lubricants with condoms can actually compromise their effectiveness. Petroleum-based lubricants can degrade latex condoms, increasing the likelihood of condom breakage or slippage, which in turn raises the risk of both pregnancy and STD transmission.
Choice C rationale: Condoms are indeed effective in preventing pregnancy, but their effectiveness can be enhanced by using them in conjunction with vaginal spermicides. Spermicides containing nonoxynol-9 can provide additional protection by inactivating or killing sperm, thus reducing the risk of pregnancy.
Choice D rationale: Ensuring a proper fit is crucial for a condom's effectiveness, but the statement only emphasizes the condom fitting snugly over the tip of the penis. For optimal protection, a condom should be unrolled to cover the entire erect penis, leaving a small empty space at the tip for semen collection. A condom that is not unrolled completely may be more likely to slip off or break during intercourse.
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