A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new colostomy.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take when demonstrating how to change the ostomy appliance?
                            
                                                                                                    Apply the skin sealant on damp skin.
Remove the appliance before emptying the pouch.
Ensure that the skin is slightly damp for better adhesion of the pouch.
Trace the size of stoma onto the skin barrier.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Applying skin sealant on damp skin is not a correct technique when changing an ostomy appliance. Skin should be clean and thoroughly dry before applying any ostomy products. Moisture on the skin can interfere with the adhesion of the pouching system, leading to skin irritation and leakage.
Choice B rationale:
Removing the appliance before emptying the pouch is not the correct technique. Ostomy pouches are designed to be emptied without removing the entire appliance. Removing the pouch unnecessarily can cause discomfort to the client and may damage the surrounding skin. Regular emptying of the pouch while leaving the appliance in place is the appropriate practice.
Choice C rationale:
Ensuring that the skin is slightly damp for better adhesion of the pouch is not accurate. Ostomy pouches adhere best to clean, dry skin. Moisture on the skin can compromise the adhesive seal and lead to skin irritation. Therefore, the skin should be thoroughly dried before applying the ostomy pouching system.
Choice D rationale:
Tracing the size of the stoma onto the skin barrier is the correct technique when changing an ostomy appliance. The opening of the skin barrier (wafer) should match the size and shape of the stoma to ensure a proper fit. Tracing the stoma's size onto the barrier helps in cutting the opening to the appropriate size, preventing leakage and ensuring a secure fit around the stoma.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice A.
Choice A rationale:
The client has influenza, which is a respiratory illness that can be transmitted through droplets when the infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. The UAP is in close contact with the client while assisting them to sit up in bed to eat lunch. Therefore, it is necessary for the UAP to wear a face mask in addition to a gown and gloves to prevent the spread of the virus.This is in line with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines, which recommend that healthcare personnel wear a face mask when they are in the same room as a patient with suspected or confirmed influenza.
Choice B rationale:
A fitted respirator mask is not necessary in this situation.According to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), respirators are required for airborne diseases such as tuberculosis, but not for influenza, which is a droplet-transmitted disease. Therefore, reminding the UAP to apply a fitted respirator mask before entering the client’s room is not the most appropriate action.
Choice C rationale:
Assigning the UAP to provide care for another client and assuming full care of the client is not the most appropriate action in this situation. The UAP is already wearing a gown and gloves, which are part of the standard precautions for any patient care.The UAP just needs to add a face mask to their personal protective equipment (PPE) to safely assist the client.
Choice D rationale:
Instructing the UAP to notify the nurse of any changes in the client’s respiratory status is always a good practice. However, it does not address the immediate need for the UAP to wear a face mask while in close contact with the client. Therefore, it is not the most appropriate action in this situation.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E","F","G"]
Explanation
The correct answers are Choices A, C, D, E, F, and G.
Choice A rationale: Antihypertensive medication is indicated due to sustained elevated BP (≥160/110 mm Hg), which increases risk for stroke, placental abruption, and eclampsia. Prompt control reduces maternal and fetal morbidity.
Choice B rationale: Routine vaginal exams are contraindicated unless signs of labor are present. Frequent exams increase infection risk and are not part of standard care for hypertensive or preeclamptic clients.
Choice C rationale: A low-stimulation environment (dim lights, quiet room) reduces CNS irritability and seizure risk in preeclampsia. It supports neuroprotection and aligns with seizure precaution protocols.
Choice D rationale: Betamethasone promotes fetal lung maturity in preterm gestation when delivery is likely. It reduces neonatal respiratory distress syndrome and improves outcomes in hypertensive pregnancies.
Choice E rationale: A 24-hour urine specimen quantifies proteinuria, essential for diagnosing preeclampsia severity. Protein 3+ on dipstick warrants confirmation via timed collection for accurate staging.
Choice F rationale: Hourly intake and output monitoring detects fluid shifts, renal compromise, and early signs of pulmonary edema. It’s critical in hypertensive disorders to guide fluid management.
Choice G rationale: Bed rest minimizes physical stress, stabilizes BP, and reduces risk of placental disruption. Left lateral positioning enhances uteroplacental perfusion and supports fetal oxygenation.
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