A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints.
Which of the following guidelines should the nurse manager include?
Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
Document the client's condition every 15 min.
Attach the restraint to the bed's side rails.
Remove the client's restraint every 4 hr.
The Correct Answer is B
Answer is: b. Document the client's condition every 15 min.
Explanation: The nurse manager should include the guideline to document the client's condition every 15 minutes while using belt restraints. This is to ensure close monitoring of the client's physical and psychological well-being and to evaluate the ongoing need for restraint use.
Choice a. is wrong because requesting a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive might not be appropriate. The use of restraints should be based on a thorough assessment of the client's condition and should be the least restrictive method possible.
Choice c. is wrong because attaching the restraint to the bed's side rails poses a safety risk to the client, as the side rails can be lowered accidentally or intentionally, leading to potential injury.
Choice d. is wrong because removing the client's restraint every 4 hours might not be appropriate, as it depends on the client's specific needs, facility policies, and state regulations. The nurse should follow appropriate guidelines for removing restraints and reassess the client's need for continued restraint use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C"]
Explanation
The correct answers are Choices A and C.
Choice A rationale: Severe hypertension in pregnancy disrupts placental perfusion and vascular integrity, increasing risk of placental abruption due to premature separation and hemorrhage, threatening both maternal and fetal outcomes.
Choice B rationale: Cervical insufficiency is linked to structural weakness or trauma, not hypertension; it typically presents with painless dilation and is unrelated to elevated blood pressure or vascular compromise.
Choice C rationale: Hypertensive encephalopathy and preeclampsia can progress to eclampsia, marked by seizures. Elevated BP increases cerebral edema and excitability, triggering convulsions if unmanaged.
Choice D rationale: Hypoglycemia is not a direct consequence of hypertension; it’s more associated with insulin dysregulation, poor intake, or medication effects, not elevated blood pressure.
Choice E rationale: Heart failure may occur in chronic hypertension but is less acute than seizure or abruption risk in this context. No signs of fluid overload or cardiac decompensation are present in the vitals.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Maintaining eye contact with the newborn during feedings is a general caregiving practice and is not specific to managing neonatal abstinence syndrome. While eye contact and bonding are important for newborns, it does not address the symptoms of neonatal abstinence syndrome.
Choice B rationale:
Swaddling the newborn with his legs extended is not a specific action for managing neonatal abstinence syndrome. However, swaddling can provide comfort to some infants, but the positioning of the legs is not directly related to managing symptoms of withdrawal.
Choice C rationale:
Administering naloxone to the newborn is not a standard practice for managing neonatal abstinence syndrome. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose in adults and is not typically used in newborns unless there are specific indications, which are rare.
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