The nurse is continuing to care for the client.
Vital Signs.
Day 1, 0900:. Temperature (oral) 36.9° C (98.4° F). Heart rate 72/min.
Respiratory rate 16/min.
BP 162/112 mm Hg. Day 1, 0930:. Oxygen saturation 97% on room air.
Temperature (oral) 37.1° C (98.8° F). Heart rate 84/min.
Respiratory rate 18/min.
BP 166/110 mm Hg. Oxygen saturation 99% on room air.
Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following.
sentence.
The client is at greatest risk for developing Target 1 and Target 2. Conditions.
Placental abruption.
Cervical insufficiency.
Seizures.
Hypoglycemia.
Heart failure.
Correct Answer : A,C
The correct answers are Choices A and C.
Choice A rationale: Severe hypertension in pregnancy disrupts placental perfusion and vascular integrity, increasing risk of placental abruption due to premature separation and hemorrhage, threatening both maternal and fetal outcomes.
Choice B rationale: Cervical insufficiency is linked to structural weakness or trauma, not hypertension; it typically presents with painless dilation and is unrelated to elevated blood pressure or vascular compromise.
Choice C rationale: Hypertensive encephalopathy and preeclampsia can progress to eclampsia, marked by seizures. Elevated BP increases cerebral edema and excitability, triggering convulsions if unmanaged.
Choice D rationale: Hypoglycemia is not a direct consequence of hypertension; it’s more associated with insulin dysregulation, poor intake, or medication effects, not elevated blood pressure.
Choice E rationale: Heart failure may occur in chronic hypertension but is less acute than seizure or abruption risk in this context. No signs of fluid overload or cardiac decompensation are present in the vitals.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Offering small amounts of clear liquids 6 hours following surgery is generally appropriate, but it doesn't specifically address the child's pain management. Pain control is essential postoperatively, and the best approach is to administer analgesics as prescribed by the healthcare provider.
Choice B rationale:
Applying a warm compress to the operative site once daily can provide comfort and may help reduce localized pain or swelling. However, this alone might not be sufficient for pain management, especially in the immediate postoperative period.
Choice C rationale:
(Correct Choice) Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is essential for managing postoperative pain effectively. Pain can interfere with the child's recovery, breathing, and overall well-being. Scheduled pain medications ensure a consistent level of pain relief, allowing the child to rest and recover more comfortably.
Choice D rationale:
Cromolyn nebulized solution is used to prevent asthma symptoms and allergic reactions. It is not typically indicated for postoperative pain management. Providing appropriate analgesics, as prescribed, is the standard of care for managing pain in a postoperative child.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice d. Increasingly severe headache.
Choice A rationale:
Tachycardia is not typically associated with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). In fact, bradycardia (a slower heart rate) is more commonly seen as part of Cushing’s triad, which indicates increased ICP.
Choice B rationale:
Hypotension is not a common sign of increased ICP. Instead, hypertension (high blood pressure) is often observed as the body attempts to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure.
Choice C rationale:
Narrowed pulse pressure is not a typical indicator of increased ICP. Widened pulse pressure (the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure) is more commonly associated with increased ICP.
Choice D rationale:
Increasingly severe headache is a classic symptom of increased ICP. As pressure within the skull rises, it can cause significant pain and discomfort, making this a key indicator to monitor in patients with traumatic brain injury.
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