A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the adverse effects of sertraline.
Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?
Metallic taste in mouth.
Increased urinary frequency.
Dry cough.
Excessive sweating.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Metallic taste in mouth. Metallic taste in the mouth is a common side effect of many medications, including sertraline. It occurs due to the medication's effect on taste receptors. Patients should be informed about this side effect, but it is not a serious adverse effect that requires immediate medical attention.
Choice B rationale:
Increased urinary frequency. Increased urinary frequency is not a commonly reported side effect of sertraline. While some individuals may experience changes in urination patterns, it is not a significant adverse effect associated with this medication.
Choice C rationale:
Dry cough. Dry cough is not a known side effect of sertraline. Cough can occur due to various reasons, such as allergies, respiratory infections, or other medications, but it is not directly caused by sertraline.
Choice D rationale:
Excessive sweating. Excessive sweating, also known as hyperhidrosis, is a potential adverse effect of sertraline. It can be bothersome for some individuals and may impact their quality of life. Patients should be aware of this side effect and report it to their healthcare provider if it becomes bothersome or persistent.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is: b. “Tighten your muscles before relaxing them when using muscle relaxation techniques.”
Rationale for Choice B: Progressive Muscle Relaxation (PMR) is a well-established technique used in stress management and relaxation therapy. It involves systematically tensing and then relaxing specific muscle groups throughout the body. By tensing the muscles first, individuals can become more aware of the contrast between tension and relaxation, thereby enhancing the relaxation response. This heightened awareness helps individuals recognize and release muscular tension more effectively, leading to deeper relaxation and stress relief.
Rationale for Choice A: Choice A suggests talking to someone admired as the first step in using mindfulness techniques to relax. However, mindfulness practices typically involve cultivating awareness of the present moment without judgment. While seeking support from others may be beneficial for stress management, it is not a foundational aspect of mindfulness practice. Mindfulness often entails individual introspection and observation of one's thoughts, feelings, and bodily sensations.
Rationale for Choice C: Choice C recommends breathing in through the mouth and out through the nose during deep breathing exercises. While there are various breathing techniques utilized in stress management, the typical recommendation for deep breathing exercises is to inhale through the nose and exhale through the mouth. Nasal breathing helps regulate the flow of air, optimizes oxygen exchange, and activates the parasympathetic nervous system, promoting relaxation and stress reduction.
Rationale for Choice D: Choice D proposes imagining a stimulating situation when practicing guided imagery. However, guided imagery is a relaxation technique that involves creating vivid mental images of calming and tranquil scenes, such as a serene beach or peaceful forest. The purpose of guided imagery is to evoke positive emotions, reduce stress, and induce a state of deep relaxation. Imagining stimulating situations may have the opposite effect, potentially increasing arousal and tension rather than promoting relaxation.
In summary, while all choices may have some relevance to stress management, Choice B is the most appropriate as it aligns with the established technique of Progressive Muscle Relaxation. Choices A, C, and D deviate from widely recognized relaxation methods and are therefore considered incorrect in this context.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Administering a laxative to a client with acute appendicitis is contraindicated. Laxatives can increase bowel motility, which may aggravate the inflamed appendix and lead to rupture. Rupture of the appendix can result in a life-threatening condition known as peritonitis.
Choice B rationale:
Keeping the client on NPO (nothing by mouth) status is the correct choice. NPO status is essential in the management of acute appendicitis. It helps to rest the bowel, prevents stimulation of the appendix, and decreases the risk of rupture. Oral intake, including food and fluids, is usually restricted until the client undergoes surgery to remove the inflamed appendix (appendectomy).
Choice C rationale:
Placing the client's head of bed flat is not the optimal position for a client with acute appendicitis. Elevating the head of the bed slightly (semi-Fowler's position) can help reduce discomfort and minimize pressure on the abdomen. This position is more comfortable for the client and can aid in pain management.
Choice D rationale:
Applying heat to the client's abdomen is not recommended in acute appendicitis. Heat application can increase blood flow to the area, potentially worsening inflammation and exacerbating pain. Cold packs or ice packs are sometimes used to provide comfort, but their application should be done cautiously to avoid skin damage. However, in many cases, healthcare providers prefer to avoid temperature applications to prevent masking symptoms and signs of worsening appendicitis.
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