A nurse is preparing to witness a client's signature on a consent form for a colon resection. The nurse should recognize that which of the following information should be provided to the client by the provider before signing the form? (Select all that apply.)
Potential complications
Cost of the procedure
Possible alternative treatments
Explanation of the procedure
Expected outcome of the procedure
Correct Answer : A,C,D,E
A. Potential complications. The provider is responsible for informing the client of possible risks and complications associated with the procedure. This ensures the client understands what to expect and can make an informed decision.
B. Cost of the procedure. While cost is an important consideration, it is not part of the informed consent process that the provider must explain. Financial discussions are typically handled by billing or administrative personnel.
C. Possible alternative treatments. Informed consent includes a discussion of reasonable alternatives so the client can weigh all available options. This allows for autonomous decision-making regarding their care.
D. Explanation of the procedure. The provider must describe the nature and details of the procedure, including what it involves and how it will be performed. This ensures the client understands what they are consenting to.
E. Expected outcome of the procedure. Clients should be informed of the anticipated results and benefits of the surgery. This helps set realistic expectations and supports informed decision-making.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A,B"},"B":{"answers":"C"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A,B"},"F":{"answers":"A,B"}}
Explanation
- Fever: Fever is a nonspecific but common symptom found in all three conditions—epiglottitis, RSV, and streptococcal pharyngitis. However, it is more severe and abrupt in epiglottitis and low to moderate in RSV and strep throat. In this case, the toddler has had a persistent fever over 38°C, consistent with both RSV and strep.
- Exudate on pharynx: Pharyngeal exudate is a hallmark sign of acute streptococcal pharyngitis, resulting from the inflammatory response to GABHS. It is not typical in RSV or epiglottitis, where erythema and swelling may occur but without purulent exudate.
- Wheezing upon auscultation: Wheezing is a classic sign of RSV, a lower respiratory viral infection leading to bronchiolitis and airway obstruction. It is not a feature of epiglottitis or strep throat, which involve the upper airway and oropharynx, respectively.
- Drooling: Drooling is strongly associated with epiglottitis, due to inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis which makes it painful and difficult to swallow. It is not typical in RSV or strep pharyngitis unless there is severe oral involvement or dehydration.
- Hypoxia: Hypoxia may occur in both epiglottitis and RSV due to airway obstruction or inflammation compromising oxygenation. In epiglottitis, it results from upper airway narrowing; in RSV, from lower airway inflammation and mucus plugging. It is not common in uncomplicated streptococcal pharyngitis.
- Tachypnea: Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and is often present in both epiglottitis and RSV, as the body attempts to compensate for impaired gas exchange. It is not a primary feature of strep pharyngitis unless accompanied by systemic infection or high fever.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Respiratory rate 10/min. This is the priority finding because it suggests respiratory depression, a serious side effect of magnesium sulfate therapy. Magnesium acts as a CNS depressant, and a respiratory rate below 12/min is a potential sign of magnesium toxicity, which can lead to respiratory arrest if not promptly addressed.
B. 2+ deep-tendon reflexes. This indicates normal neuromuscular function and is actually a reassuring finding in a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Reflexes are typically monitored to detect early signs of toxicity, and a 2+ rating means the dose is likely therapeutic.
C. 3+ pedal edema. While significant, pedal edema is a common feature of preeclampsia and not directly related to magnesium sulfate toxicity. It should be monitored but does not require immediate action compared to respiratory compromise.
D. Urinary output 35 mL/hr. This is slightly above the minimum acceptable output of 30 mL/hr, indicating the kidneys are excreting adequately. While magnesium is excreted renally and output must be monitored, this value does not indicate an acute risk.
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