A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of four clients who take digoxin.

Which of the following clients is at risk for developing digoxin toxicity?

A client who takes glyburide for type 2 diabetes mellitus.

A client who takes furosemide for hypertension.

A client who takes cimetidine to reduce gastric acid secretion.

A client who takes azelastine for allergic rhinitis.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:
A client who takes glyburide for type 2 diabetes mellitus is not at significant risk for developing digoxin toxicity. Glyburide is an antidiabetic medication and does not interact directly with digoxin.

Choice B rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia (normal potassium levels: 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L) and hypomagnesemia (normal magnesium levels: 1.7 to 2.2 mg/dL). These imbalances increase the sensitivity to digoxin and the risk of toxicity. Digoxin toxicity is associated with symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and arrhythmias. Furosemide's impact on electrolytes makes it a significant risk factor for digoxin toxicity.

Choice C rationale: Cimetidine, a histamine H2 receptor antagonist, can inhibit the metabolism of certain drugs by affecting liver enzymes. However, it does not significantly alter digoxin levels or increase the risk of toxicity. Normal liver enzyme levels include ALT (7 to 56 U/L) and AST (10 to 40 U/L). While cimetidine may interact with other medications, its effect on digoxin is minimal.

Choice D rationale:
A client who takes azelastine for allergic rhinitis is not at significant risk for developing digoxin toxicity. Azelastine is an antihistamine and does not interact directly with digoxin.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Tuberculosis treatment with rifampin typically lasts 6 to 9 months. Lifelong therapy is not required for TB, and unnecessary prolonged use increases the risk of drug resistance and hepatotoxicity.

Choice B rationale: Rifampin induces liver enzymes that accelerate the metabolism of oral contraceptives, making them less effective. It does not cause amenorrhea, but it necessitates the use of non-hormonal backup contraception.

Choice C rationale: Rifampin causes a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, tears, and saliva. This can permanently stain soft contact lenses, so clients are advised to wear eyeglasses during the treatment course.

Choice D rationale: A yellow tint to the skin or sclera indicates jaundice, which is a sign of hepatotoxicity. This is a serious adverse effect rather than an expected reaction and must be reported immediately.

A. Urine output 200 mL/4 hr. B. Heart rate 104/min. C. Peripheral pulses +1. D. Urine specific gravity 1.04. .

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The nurse should identify that an effective outcome of IV fluid replacement in a client with dehydration is an increase in urine output. Urine output of 200 mL in 4 hours indicates that the kidneys are responding to the IV fluid replacement, and the client is likely rehydrating. This suggests that the renal perfusion has improved, and the client's body is eliminating waste products properly.

Choice B rationale:

A heart rate of 104 beats per minute is not necessarily indicative of the effectiveness of IV fluid replacement. Heart rate may vary for various reasons, and it is not a specific parameter for assessing the response to hydration. Other factors, such as blood pressure, should be considered to evaluate cardiovascular status.

Choice C rationale:

Peripheral pulses of +1 are not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of IV fluid replacement. While improved hydration may lead to better peripheral perfusion, this assessment is somewhat subjective and may not accurately reflect the overall effectiveness of the treatment.

Choice D rationale:

A urine specific gravity of 1.04 is not indicative of the effectiveness of IV fluid replacement. A specific gravity of 1.004 is within the normal range (normal range: 1.005-1.030) and does not necessarily indicate hydration status. It is essential to focus on urine output and other objective parameters to assess the effectiveness of hydration therapy. .

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A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of four clients who take digoxin. Which of the following clients is at risk for developing digoxin toxicity?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of four clients who take digoxin.

Which of the following clients is at risk for developing digoxin toxicity?